Cumulative Biology Final Exam

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BIO101_MH_V4 | Topic 14: Review

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Started on Wednesday, July 17, 2019, 11:00 PM State Finished

Completed on Wednesday, July 17, 2019, 11:06 PM Time taken 5 mins 42 secs

Grade 87.50 out of 350.00 (25%)

The structure of valine, an amino acid, is shown. What portion of the valine molecule is indicated by the shaded area?

Select one: a. amino group

b. carbon chain

c. carboxyl group

d. R group

 

 

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Question 2 Incorrect

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Question 4 Correct

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Nucleotides are composed of

Select one: a. adenosine triphosphate, pentose sugars, and phosphates.

b. DNA, ribose sugars and polypeptides.

c. nitrogen-containing bases, phosphates, and peptides.

d. phosphates, pentose sugars, and nitrogen-containing bases.

What are the primary constituents of cell membranes?

Select one: a. carbohydrates

b. lipids

c. minerals

d. proteins

Which of the following is an organic catalyst and usually a protein?

Select one: a. ATP

b. coenzyme

c. enzyme

d. substrate

 

 

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Which of the following cell organelles is the site of the citric acid cycle?

Select one: a. Golgi apparatus

b. mitochondria

c. nucleus

d. ribosome

What is the degradation product of heme?

Select one: a. bile pigment

b. globin

c. iron

d. porphyrin

During photosynthesis, which of the following happens?

Select one: a. Carbon dioxide is reduced to glucose.

b. Chloroplasts convert solar energy to ADP.

c. Hydrogen atoms reduce water to glucose.

d. Water is hydrolyzed.

 

 

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Question 8 Correct

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Question 9 Correct

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Which of these are the photosynthetic organs of a plant?

Select one: a. cones

b. fruits

c. leaves

d. seeds

Which of these is an end product of photosynthesis?

Select one: a. ATP

b. carbon dioxide

c. glucose

d. water

What is the total number of ATP molecules produced by the citric acid cycle?

Select one: a. 2

b. 4

c. 16

d. 256

 

 

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Question 11 Correct

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In cellular respiration, what percentage of the available energy is transferred from glucose to ATP?

Select one: a. 17%

b. 28%

c. 39%

d. 63%

Based on their characteristics, mitochondria could be evolutionary remnants of which type of microorganism?

Select one: a. bacteria

b. fungi

c. protozoa

d. virus

In cellular respiration, what is the end product of chemiosmosis?

Select one: a. ATP

b. glucose

c. NADH

d. pyruvic acid

 

 

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Question 14 Incorrect

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The primary cell wall of plants is composed of which of the following?

Select one: a. cellulose

b. chitin

c. lignin

d. phospholipid

What unique structural property of cellulose makes it largely indigestible by humans?

Select one: a. addition of chitin, another structural polysaccharide

b. alternating positioning of oxygen atoms in linked glucose

c. branched chains of linked glucose

d. covalent bonding between glucose units, providing extra stability

How do peripheral proteins play a role in the plasma membrane?

Select one: a. They often play a structural role, helping stabilize and shape the plasma membrane.

b. They allow ions to �ow directly through the membrane.

c. They bind with glycoproteins for cell recognition in immune responses.

d. They bind with a carrier protein to facilitate membrane transport.

 

 

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Question 17 Correct

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Question 18 Incorrect

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At the end of meiosis I, how many chromosomes from each homologous parental pair does one daughter cell contain?

Select one: a. 1

b. 2

c. 3

d. 4

In meiosis, crossing-over of genetic material between two non-sister chromatids occurs during

Select one: a. anaphase I.

b. metaphase II.

c. prophase I.

d. telophase II.

 

 

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Question 19 Incorrect

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In the phase of mitosis depicted in the �gure, which of the following is occurring?

Select one: a. Chromatids are crossing over.

b. Chromosomes are aligning on the plates.

c. Daughter cells are being formed.

d. Sister chromatids are separating.

 

 

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Question 20 Incorrect

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In the representation of a DNA molecule shown below, what parts of the nucleotides are indicated by the colors red, green, blue, and yellow?

Select one: a. nitrogenous base

b. pentose sugar

c. phosphate

d. ribose sugar

 

 

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Question 21 Correct

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Question 22 Incorrect

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Using the Punnett square, what is the phenotypic ratio of tall plants to short plants?

Select one: a. 1:1

b. 2:1

c. 3:1

d. 1:3

Which of the following causes of mutations occurs when nucleotide pairs are replicated?

Select one: a. errors in replication

b. mutagens

c. transposons

d. gene expression

 

 

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Question 23 Incorrect

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Question 24 Correct

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In the following mutation the letter “C” was deleted from the sequence of codons. Instead of reading “THE CAT ATE THE RAT” the sequence reads “THE ATA TET HER AT.” Which of the following types of mutation is this?

Select one: a. deletion mutation

b. frameshift mutation

c. point mutation

d. protein mutation

Which of the following is an estimate of the number of pairs of DNA bases in the human genome?

Select one: a. 300,000 pairs

b. 5.8 million pairs

c. 3.2 billion pairs

d. 6.4 trillion pairs

Which type of bacteria is produced by biotechnology to express a cloned gene?

Select one: a. aerobic

b. pathogenic

c. peritrichous

d. transgenic

 

 

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Question 26 Incorrect

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In this illustration of the stem of a plant, the arrow points to which structure?

Select one: a. auxiliary bud

 

 

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b. node

c. petiole

d. terminal bud

Which type of root is used by certain plants for food storage?

Select one: a. adventitious

b. �brous

c. pneumatophore

d. tap

Which of the following processes involves evaporation of water from the leaves?

Select one: a. osmosis

b. respiration

c. translocation

d. transpiration

According to the cohesion-tension model, how does xylem transport work in plants?

Select one: a. Tension created by atmospheric pressure pushes water up the xylem.

b. Tension created by transpiration in the leaves pulls water along the xylem.

c. Water entering the root cells creates negative pressure that pushes water up the xylem.

d. Water is actively transported up the xylem by gravity.

 

 

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Question 30 Correct

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Question 31 Correct

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Which of the following types of tropism is exhibited by the plant shown in the photograph?

Select one: a. negative gravitropism

b. negative phototropism

c. positive phototropism

d. positive gravitoprism

Which plant hormone facilitates ripening of fruits?

Select one: a. abscisic acid

b. auxin

c. ethylene

d. gibberellin

 

 

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Question 32 Incorrect

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Question 33 Incorrect

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Referring to the diagram, what is the correct order of labeling for the boxes (1-4) depicting alternation of generations in �owering plants?

Select one: a. (1) meiosis, (2) mitosis, (3) fertilization, (4) mitosis

b. (1) meiosis, (2) mitosis, (3) mitosis, (4) meiosis

c. (1) mitosis, (2) meiosis, (3) fertilization, (4) mitosis

d. (1) mitosis, (2) meiosis, (3) meiosis, (4) mitosis

In plant reproduction, what is the eudicot structure that provides nutrition to the embryo?

Select one: a. cotyledon

b. hypocotyl

c. plumule

d. radicle

 

 

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Which of the following parts of a �ower protect the bud as the �ower develops?

Select one: a. anthers

b. ovaries

c. petals

d. sepals

An animal exhibits the following characteristics: tentacles, radial symmetry, and incomplete digestive tract. This animal would be classi�ed in which phylum?

Select one: a. Cnidaria

b. Platyhelminthes

c. Porifera

d. Rotifera

 

 

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Question 36 Incorrect

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According to the cladogram shown, what two characteristics distinguish lizards from gorillas?

Select one: a. an amniotic membrane and hair

b. bipedalism and a tail

c. hairlessness and a tail

d. jaws and lungs

 

 

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Question 37 Incorrect

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Question 38 Incorrect

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In the context of evolution, which type of selection is depicted in the graph?

Select one: a. directional selection

b. disruptive selection

c. natural selection

d. stabilizing selection

According to the Hardy-Weinberg principle, allele frequencies in a gene pool will remain at equilibrium as long as there is

Select one: a. interbreeding between populations.

b. frequent mutation.

c. genetic drift.

d. random mating.

 

 

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Question 41 Correct

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Spores are found in which part of a mushroom?

Select one: a. hyphae

b. lamellae

c. pileus

d. stipe

Which of the following types of mammal has a cloaca?

Select one: a. marsupial

b. monotreme

c. Placental

d. Testudinata

The blastopore develops into the anus in which of these invertebrates?

Select one: a. cockroach

b. earthworm

c. sea cucumber

d. squid

 

 

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According to the replacement model, where did the Homo sapiens in Europe migrate from?

Select one: a. Africa

b. Asia

c. Europe

d. North America

Which of the following human ancestors were the �rst to make tools?

Select one: a. Ardipithecines

b. Australopithecines

c. Homo erectus

d. Homo habilis

Which type of tissue lines the cavities of the human body?

Select one: a. connective

b. epithelial

c. muscular

d. nervous

 

 

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Question 46 Correct

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In the human body, which of these is a matrix of white �bers in connective tissue?

Select one: a. actin

b. collagen

c. elastic

d. myosin

Which term refers to the outermost layer of human skin?

Select one: a. dermis

b. subcutaneous

c. epidermis

d. follicle

In the human respiratory system, exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide occurs in the

Select one: a. alveoli.

b. bronchi.

c. bronchioles.

d. trachea.

 

 

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Question 50 Correct

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In human reproduction, nutrient-rich blood is transported from the placenta to the fetus by the

Select one: a. foramen ovale.

b. inferior vena cava.

c. umbilical artery.

d. umbilical vein.

Which of the following female reproductive organs produces oocytes?

Select one: a. cervix

b. ovaries

c. oviducts

d. uterus

A typical human somatic cell contains how many chromosomes?

Select one: a. 22

b. 23

c. 46

d. 47

 

 

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Question 51 Incorrect

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Question 52 Incorrect

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What must primary mRNA undergo to become mature mRNA?

Select one: a. processing provided by tRNA molecules

b. processing to remove introns and join exons

c. processing to remove exons and join introns

d. translation into codon of amino acids

The addition of a poly-A tail and a guanine cap to a primary mRNA exempli�es which level of gene control in eukaryotes?

Select one: a. transcriptional

b. post-transcriptional

c. translational

d. post-translational

 

 

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Question 53 Correct

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In the food web shown in the �gure, which of the following are the primary consumers?

Select one: a. bald eagle and osprey

b. phytoplankton, submerged aquatic vegetation, and vegetation

c. small planktivorous �sh, benthic invertebrates, herbivorous ducks, geese and mute swans

d. gulls, wading birds, large piscivorous �sh, sea ducks, and tundra swan

 

 

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Question 55 Correct

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Which of the following is the order of energy �ow within an ecosystem?

Select one: a. decomposers ⇒ consumers ⇒ producers

b. producers ⇒ consumers ⇒ decomposers

c. producers ⇒ decomposers ⇒ carnivores

d. decomposers ⇒ producers ⇒ consumers

In the ocean, coral reefs are found in which zone?

Select one: a. abyssal

b. bathypelagic

c. epipelagic

d. mesopelagic

Of Earth’s terrestrial biomes, which one is hot in the summer, cold in the winter, gets moderate annual precipitation, and has good soil for agriculture?

Select one: a. grasslands

b. shrublands

c. taiga

d. tundra

 

 

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Question 57 Incorrect

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Which protists are responsible for causing red tide?

Select one: a. diatoms

b. dino�agellates

c. �agellates

d. sporozoans

Which of the following is a density-dependent regulating factor on the population of a community?

Select one: a. availability of space

b. competition

c. temperature range

d. water supply

Which type of learning occurs when a dog stops eating butter�ies because he gets sick every time he eats one?

Select one: a. classical conditioning

b. operant conditioning

c. unconditioned response

d. imprinting

 

 

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Question 60 Correct

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To communicate the location of a food source, a honey bee returns to its hive and performs a dance while the other bees gather around and touch it with their antennae. By touching the returning bee with their antennae, what form of communication are the bees exhibiting?

Select one: a. auditory

b. chemical

c. tactile

d. visual

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Human Body Systems Worksheet

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Human Body Systems Worksheet

Fill in the table for each system. You must identify the system by the organs present. Be as concise as possible.

Name and main function of the system:

      

 
Main organs of the system:

These are provided. Use this information to fill in the remainder of the table.

 Mouth, esophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestine, rectum, anus

Salivary glands, pancreas, liver, gall bladder
What each organ does:

      

 
How the system affects other body systems or is affected by other systems

(Describe one interaction with another organ system)

      
One disease of the system:

      

 
Name and main function of the system:

      

 
Main organs of the system:

These are provided. Use this information to fill in the remainder of the table.

 kidney
What each organ does:

      

 
How the system affects other body systems or is affected by other systems

(Describe one interaction with another organ system)

      
One disease of the system:

      

 
Name and main function of the system:

      

 
Main organs of the system:

These are provided. Use this information to fill in the remainder of the table.

 Scrotum, testes, vas deferens, urethra, penis

Ovaries, fallopian tube, uterus, vagina
What each organ does:

      

 
How the system affects other body systems or is affected by other systems

(Describe one interaction with another organ system)

      
One disease of the system:

      

 
Name and main function of the system:

      

 
Main organs of the system:

These are provided. Use this information to fill in the remainder of the table.

 Bone, joints
What each organ does:

      

 
How the system affects other body systems or is affected by other systems

(Describe one interaction with another organ system)

      
One disease of the system:

      

 
Name and main function of the system:

      

 
Main organs of the system:

These are provided. Use this information to fill in the remainder of the table.

 Skeletal muscle
What each organ does:

      

 
How the system affects other body systems or is affected by other systems

(Describe one interaction with another organ system)

      
One disease of the system:

      

 
Name and main function of the system:

      

 
Main organs of the system:

These are provided. Use this information to fill in the remainder of the table.

 lungs
What each organ does:

      

 
How the system affects other body systems or is affected by other systems

(Describe one interaction with another organ system)

      
One disease of the system:

      

 
Name and main function of the system:

      

 
Main organs of the system:

These are provided. Use this information to fill in the remainder of the table.

 Heart, arteries, veins, capillaries
What each organ does:

      

 
How the system affects other body systems or is affected by other systems

(Describe one interaction with another organ system)

      
One disease of the system:

      

 

 

Name and main function of the system:

      

 
Main organs of the system:

These are provided. Use this information to fill in the remainder of the table.

 Lymph nodes
What each organ does:

      

 
How the system affects other body systems or is affected by other systems

(Describe one interaction with another organ system)

      
One disease of the system:

      

 
Name and main function of the system:

      

 
Main organs of the system:

These are provided. Use this information to fill in the remainder of the table.

 Hypothalamus, pituitary, thyroid, parathyroid, pancreas, adrenal glands, testes, ovaries
What each organ does:

      

 
How the system affects other body systems or is affected by other systems

(Describe one interaction with another organ system)

      
One disease of the system:

      
 
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Napsrx Practice Quiz/

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1.      How are drugs sorted into therapeutic group and classes?

A.      First by the conditions that they are used to treat, and then by their mechanisms of action

B.      First by their mechanisms of action, and then by their therapeutic effects

C.      First by their side effects, and then by their therapeutic effects

D.     First by their toxicity, and then by their effectiveness

2.      What section of a drug’s package insert describes situations in which the drug should not be used because the risks outweigh the therapeutic benefits?

A.      Adverse reactions

B.      Contraindications

C.      Overdosage

D.     Warming/precautions

3.      Which of the following is NOT one of the stages in the classic approach to band development strategy covered in your manual?

A.      Band personality

B.      Band positioning

C.      Band quality

D.     Band values

4.      What is the name of the condition that occurs after a specific dose of a drug is given at such regular intervals that absorption and elimination (and therefore drug plasma concentration) have become fairly constant?

A.      homeostasis

B.      steady state

C.      titration

D.     tolerance

5.      Which entity/entities invest/s the most money in pharmaceutical R&D?

A.      Canadian pharmaceutical companies

B.      The NIH

C.      The U.S Government

D.     U.S pharmaceutical companies

6.      Over the last few decades, what has happened to legal limitations sales’ reps discussions about off label uses?

A.      Limitations have decreased.

B.      Limitations have increased significantly.

C.      Limitations have increased slightly.

D.     Limitations have remained about the same.

7. Why are novice sales representatives often placed in charge of negotiating MCO formularies?

A. to become more familiar with the healthcare industry

B. to be more familiar with their territories

C. P&T committees are more receptive to new experienced reps.

D. They are not. This job is usually reserved for more experienced reps.

8.      Which of the following is an example of a central value?

A.      I buy Advil to show that I’m modern consumer.

B.      I like Advil because we were both born in the 80s.

C.      I prefer Advil because I like the flavor.

D.     I prefer Advil because it’s easier to swallow.

9.      Which of the following specialties likely has the MOST emergency calls?

A.      Cardiology

B.      Psychiatry

C.      Urology

D.     All specialists have the same number of emergency calls

10.  What affects the rate of active transport?

A.      The availability of carriers, but not energy

B.      The availability of energy, but not carriers

C.      The availability of carriers and energy

D.     Neither the availability of carriers nor the availability of energy

11.  Over the last few decades, what has happened to the FDA approval time for new drugs?

A.      It has been lengthened to ensure safer drug products.

B.      It has been lengthened to limit DTC marketing.

C.      It has been shortened to improve drug quality.

D.     It has been shortened to reduce the cost of new drug development.

12.  Which of the following would NOT help improve compliance?

A.      Patients liking their providers

B.      Patients using only one pharmacist

C.      Pharmacists understanding how generics differ from brand name drugs

D.     Support groups

13.   As the price a patient pays for prescription increases, what happens to the likelihood that the patient will fill it?

A.      It decreases

B.      It increases

C.      It remains unaffected because the prescription is needed

D.     It remains unaffected because the prescription’s increased cost is offset by its perceived value

14.  Which of the following is NOT one of the body’s major organ systems?

A.      The cardiovascular system

B.      The cellular system

C.      The gastrointestinal system

D.     The musculoskeletal system

15.   How do most drugs exert their primary physiological effects?

A.      By activating synapses between different types of tissues

B.      By binding to cell receptors that are sensitive to their presence

C.      By inhibiting synapses between different types of tissues

D.     Through genetic mutation

16.   What should a sale representative do if all of the prime spaces in a drug cabinet are occupied?

A.      Ask staff for permission to move some of the other products in the cabinet

B.      Ask staff for permission to throw away expired product in the cabinet

C.      Ask the doctor if he still needs some of the other products in the cabinet

D.     Surreptitiously move your largest competitor’s products out of the way

17.  It is inappropriate for physicians’ prescribing behaviors to be educated by their personal tastes and idiosyncrasies

A.      True

B.      False

18.  The FDA defines API as the active———-ingredient in a drug, which produces the desired change in the body.

A.      Pharmaceutical

B.      Positive

C.      Potent

D.     Primary

19.  What term describes the usage of a medication for purposes other than the FDA-approved indications on the labeling?

A.      Contraindicative indication

B.      Off-indication usage

C.      Off label use

D.     Off usage

20.  What is typically NOT a characteristic of a pharmaceutical rep?

A.      Pharmaceutical sales reps are authentic and real.

B.      Pharmaceutical sales reps are creative.

C.      Pharmaceutical sale reps are focused.

D.     Pharmaceutical sale reps are not concerned about competitors.

21.  Which of the following refers to all active and inert pharmaceutical ingredients in a drug, including fillers and colors?

A.      Formulation

B.      Mycoplasma

C.      Peptide

D.     Saccharide

22.  Senior citizens consume over——–times as many pharmaceutical as people under 65.

A.      Three

B.      Five

C.      Ten

D.     Fifteen

23.  What is passive diffusion?

A.      A type of pinocytosis

B.      Membrane transport via vesicles

C.      The use of energy to help a substance pass from a low concentration gradient to a high one

D.     When a substance freely moves through a membrane from a high concentration gradient to a low one

24.  What are all metabolites?

A.      Type of pinocytosis

B.      Membrane transport via vesicles

C.      The use of energy to help a substance pass a low concentration gradient to a high one

D.     When a substance freely moves through a membrane from a high concentration gradient to allow one

25.  When a drug is administered orally, where does first-pass metabolism occur?

A.      Intestine

B.      Liver

C.      Pancreas

D.     Stomach

26.  Which of the following is NOT part of the Seven Step Cascade of Emotion?

A.      Be a consultant, not a rep

B.      Identify what your product does

C.      Reflect

D.     Visualize the power 10

27.  If a sales representative’s product is placed on the second tier of a standard three-tier formulary, which of the following is most likely true?

A.      It has not been reviewed by the P&T committee.

B.      It is in a neutral position unless it is at parity with other drugs

C.      It probably has exclusive preferred status if it is not at parity with any other drugs.

D.     It will essentially sell itself if it is granted exclusive preferred status.

28.  According to your manual, what is a common complaint that physicians have about traditional sampling methods?

A.      That drug sample supply is too unpredictable

B.      That patients are less likely to take free samples because they think they are lower quality

C.      That patients do not like seeing drug representatives in their offices

D.     That they receive too many drug samples

29.  Which of the following would help you build trust with a physician?

A.      Asking if he or she is having any problems with the managed care coverage of your products

B.      Repeating a question you already asked

C.      Surprising the office staff with a new poster in the break room

D.     None of these would help you build trust with a physician

30.   As of November 2013, which of these countries has legalized DTC advertising of prescription drugs?

A.      Canada

B.      Japan

C.      Spain

D.     None of these

31.  Which phase of clinical trial is also known as the pivotal phase?

A.      Phase I

B.      Phase III

C.      Phase IV

D.     Phase IX

32.   During which phase of clinical trials is also known as the pivotal phase?

A.      Preclinical

B.      Phase I

C.      Phase II

D.     Phase III

33.  What is one of the biggest time wasters for a pharmaceutical sales rep?

A.      Winterers

B.      Pharmacists

C.      Receptionists

D.     Physicians

34.   What is the percentage fee that the dispenser pays the wholesaler for distribution?

A.      Margin fee

B.      Recharge

C.      Standard fee

D.     Upcharge

35.  Which of the following is an example of noncompliance?

A.      A patient forgetting to take a drug at a specified time of day

B.      A patient taking a drug, but only because it has been court-mandated

C.      A pharmacist dispensing a generic equivalent of a drug instead of the brand name

D.     A physician refusing to prescribe a drug because he or she does not trust the clinical studies on it

36.  What is one way in which pharmaceutical selling is different from selling in most other industries?

A.      In pharmaceutical sales, the decision-makers consumers, and payers are usually the same entity

B.      Pharmaceutical selling takes less time because doctors are so busy.

C.      Representatives do NOT sell to the user of the product.

D.     Representatives DO sell to the end user of the product

37.  Drugs can be used—– days beyond their expiration date.

A.      2-7 days, depending on the most current monograph.

B.      2-90 days, depending on the state laws

C.      7-90 days, depending on the type of drug and its therapeutic class.

D.     None of these

38.  What issue has MOST encouraged consumers’ desire to see more OTC medications?

A.      A weaker patients ‘right movement

B.      Lack of insurance coverage

C.      Less reliance on the internet

D.     Proliferation of herbal remedies

39.  Which phase of trials largely determines the clinical dose?

A.      Preclinical trials

B.      Phase II trials

C.      Phase III trials

D.     Phase IV trials

40.  What must be contained in the Description section of a pharmaceutical package insert?

A.      Adverse effects

B.      Mechanism of action

C.      Pharmacokinetics

D.     The proprietary name and the established name

41.   Customers purchase products from people they like, trust, and respect. This is called the———-

A.      Closing of the sale

B.      First time advantage

C.      Likeability factor

D.     Power of knowledge

42.   According to your manual, how has the U.S. healthcare marketplace changed in the last few decades?

A.      Fewer and fewer prescription drugs have been made available as OTCs.

B.      Managed care has been increasingly replaced by more patient- centered approaches.

C.      The aging Baby Boomer generation has begun demanding more personalized attention.

D.     There has been decreased emphasis on preventive health.

43.  How does pharmaceutical marketing help narrow the treatment gap?

A.      It encourages patients to take more active roles in their healthcare.

B.      It makes doctors more skeptical of the pharmaceutical industry.

C.      It makes patients more skeptical of their doctors’ opinions.

D.     All of these

44.  The FDA requirements for nutraceuticals and medicinal herbs are just as stringent as for pharmaceuticals.

A.      True

B.      False

45.   After a trade-name drug’s patent expires, how may generic versions of it be sold?

A.      Only under the branded generic name

B.      Only under the generic name

C.      Only under the original trade name

D.     Under the original trade name or a generic name

46.  What is required for a new pharmaceutical to be considered a viable therapy?

A.      It causes no serious adverse effects.

B.      It causes no side effects.

C.      It has an active placebo.

D.     It is more effective and/or causes fewer serious adverse effects than other drugs on the market.

47.   A generic version is likely to have some inactive ingredients that are different from those of the original drug.

A.      True

B.      False

 

48.  Where are most drugs metabolized?

A.      Interstitial spaces

B.      Liver

C.      Stomach

D.     The bloodstream

 

49.  What is essential to the ethical requirement that subjects be selected fairly?

A.      Selection criteria should be well-supported by documented evidence.

B.      Studies should make every attempt to conduct research on subjects who are underprivileged and in need of medical attention

C.      Subject should be selected based on scientific objectives.

D.     All of these

 

50.  Which of the following is NOT typically included in the indications and usage section of the package insert information?

A.      Diseases or conditions that the drug is approved to treat

B.      The drug’s active metabolites

C.      The drug’s recommended usual dosage

D.     The drug’s usual dosage range

 

 

 
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Biological Astronaut

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Imagine you are an exploratory astronaut looking for life throughout the universe. One day you encounter a planet that has no carbon present on its surface. However, your instruments register movement and a variety of other signs that make you think life exists on the surface.

 

Part 1:

Look for an element on the periodic table that would act similarly to carbon. Once you have identified one, be sure to discuss the following in your justification.

· Examine and discuss the outer electron shell and chemical bonding characteristics of this new element.

· Specifically describe how the outer shell would make this new element bond as carbon does.

· Then you should specifically discuss or draw two chemical reactions to form macromolecules with this different element. For example, make a molecule like glucose but without any carbons (replace carbon with your new element). Images will work great here; they can be hand or computer drawn or you may be able to find some on the internet.

· Cite your references!

 

Part 2:

Choose two of the defining characteristics of life and design an experiment to test each in your alien lifeform. Be sure that your design includes all the following points.

· Hypothesis

· Dependent and independent variables

· Control and experimental groups

· Standardized variables

· The specific type of data you would collect

· How you would analyze and present these data

· What pieces of data/evidence you would need to support your hypothesis. Alternatively, what evidence would disprove your hypothesis?

Remember to keep things simple and observable. You will most likely have to design 2 different experiments to test the different characteristics.

 
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