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Lab 4 Selective Media & Agar BIO250L”

Student Name: Click here to enter text. Access Code (located on the underside of the lid of your lab kit):

“Pre-Lab Questions”

1. What is the difference between chemically defined and chemically complex media? Give either a

clinical or environmental research example for which each media type would be the most

appropriate choice for culturing microorganisms.

In chemically defined media, the ingredients that make up the chemical media are know

and can be identified and quantity known such a medium is use to determine the least

amount of nutrients that a microbe needs to survive In chemically complex media the

chemical composition is unknown.the ingredients in this media have an organic origin for

instance, blood, and animal or human tissue can be added to a culture to enable a

pathogen to grow. The reason these organic ingredients are added is because the

pathogen is already know to grow in an animal or a human being

2. Why is differential media typically inoculated with isolated colonies that have been previously

cultured on general growth media?

Differential media is used in previously isolated colonies to identify specific microbes on

basis of the characteristics of that mircorogranism. One example is how agar can

differentiate between hemolytic and non hemolytic bacteria-

3. Use a textbook or a reputable internet source (such as www.cdc.gov) to research and describe a

scenario in a lab or clinical setting in which a selective and/or differential test would be

necessary.

In the case where a microbe is resistant to an antibiotic, selective test can and have

been used on a culture that is already resistant to anti-biotic.this allows for the cells that

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Lab 4 Selective Media & Agar BIO250L” have already grown a resistance to the antibiotic to be identified and marked. This was

done to cells that were resistant to neomycin. In a differential test, pin points the

presenceof a certain organism this makes it possible to eliminate this organism as soon

as it has been spoted https://bio.libretexts.org/Bookshelves/Microbiology/Book

%3A_Microbiology_(Boundless)/6%3A_Culturing_Microorganisms/6.3%3A_Culturing_B

acteria/6.3C%3A_Selective_and_Differential_Media

“EXPERIMENT 1: Bioprospecting for Starch Degrading Bacteria

Data Tables Table 3: Starch Agar and Gram Iodine Results

Sample Growth on Starch Agar? (Yes or No)

Clear area around colonies?

Do these bacteria contain amylase?

A Yes no y

B Yes yes- yes-

C Yes y- -yes

D No no no

Post-Lab Questions 1. Why is cow manure used as a potential source of starch-degrading bacteria? (If you are not

familiar with the process of digestion in cows, use a reputable internet source to inform your

answer.)

Because of the presence of Amylase which is needed to digest starch in the mouth

2. What are some other potential sources of starch-degrading bacteria?

potential sources of starch degrading bacteria can be found in fermenting food like hops

in the process of beer making, kombucha, and milk kefir

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Lab 4 Selective Media & Agar BIO250L” 3. What component makes starch agar selective for starch-degrading bacteria?

Because starch agar usually has in it the bacteria that degrades starch, it makes a good

selective media because it is will act as a selective nutrient to promote the growth of this

degrading bacteria

4. Why were each of the following steps performed in this experiment?

a. Serial dilution:

To act as a dilutant of microbes so that they it is possible to count them The

stock solution has too many microbes to be effective in the other process of

microbe identification thought isolation.-

b. Growth on the nutrient agar plates:

this was for purpose of bacteria isolation then transfer a single type of bacteria

hence being able to identify them

c. Streak on the starch agar plates:

to introduce a different media that would identify the presence of starch

degrading bacteria

Insert a photo of your plates. Include your name and access code handwritten in the background of

your photo.

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Lab 4 Selective Media & Agar BIO250L”

“EXPERIMENT 2: Selection and Differentiation of Body Inhabiting Gram-Positive Bacteria

Data Tables Table 4: Experiment 2 MSA Growth Observations

Surface Tested

Growth (Yes or No) –

Nutrient Agar

Growth (Yes or No) – MSA Agar

MSA color around colonies (Red or

Yellow)

Other Observations

Face Yes Yes Yellow Cfogged up –

nose Yes Yes Yellow Thick and droppy-

Controller Yes Yes Yellow Many organisms

–

Control No No Select one: clear –

Post-Lab Questions 1. What chemical in MSA confers selectivity? How?

The HIGH concentration of sodium chloride allows for the growth of microgranisms like

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Lab 4 Selective Media & Agar BIO250L” staphylococcus which while other types of this organism cannot ferment MSA, The

staphylococcus does

2. What chemical makes MSA differential? How?

Sugar mannitol is the differential chemical presence of organisms that can use sugar

mannitol as a source of nutrition will ferment it causing to become acidic which in turn

change the ph .This change in ph accounts for color change when this kind of bacteria is

present.-

3. Why are the nutrient agar plates used in this experiment?

The agar plates are serve to help compare the growth rates in MSA and Agar

4. Was there any growth on you MSA plates? Did any of the colonies change the color of the MSA?

What does this tell you about the bacteria taken from each area of your body?

yes there was a change in color which serves as confirmation that there were bacteria

that allowed for MSA to ferment hence making the set up acidic. The acidity is what

made the co

Insert a photo of your plates. Include your name and access code handwritten in the background of

your photo.

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Lab 4 Selective Media & Agar BIO250L”

EXPERIMENT 3: Selection and Differentiation of Body Inhabiting Gram-Negative Bacteria from

Liquid Samples

Data Tables Table 5: MacConkey Agar Results

Sample Growth?

(Yes or No) Colony Color (Clear or Red)

Analysis

CTap water- Yes Select one: Cpretty clean-

Spring water – Yes Select one: C pure and seems extremely safe –

Pond water – Yes Select one: extremely dirty-

Experiment 3 Post-Lab Questions 1. What types of bacteria are inhibited on MacConkey agar? What ingredient(s) in MacConkey agar

selects against those bacteria?

MacConkey agar are inhibited by Gram positive bacteria the ingredients

that allow for for selection are crystal violet and salts .

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Lab 4 Selective Media & Agar BIO250L” 2. What ingredient(s) makes MacConkey agar differential?

MacCoknkey agar is a differential Because it contains lactose. When bacteria works on

lactose to break it down, there is a release of acidic waste which changes the ph and

gives it the red-pink look

3. Using a textbook and a reputable online source (such as the CDC), research and describe some

potentially pathogenic members of the intestinal bacteria family Enterobacteriaceae. Which

pathogenic species are lactose fermenters that will grow on MacConkey agar?

Salmonella typhimurium- i will ferment lactose that is on the MacConkey agar.E-coli is

also a lactose fermenting bacteria.

4. Use a reputable internet source to research and describe some potentially pathogenic intestinal

bacteria that do not ferment lactose that will grow on MacConkey agar.

C-Legionella, Bordetella, Helicobacter are non lactose fermenting bacteria

5. Use a reputable internet source to research and describe what variations of MacConkey agar can

be used to detect other species of bacteria.

there is a variation of MacConkey Agar without Crystal Violet it detects Gram-Positive

cocci.- There there is MacConkey Agar that has Violet it is used to control t bacteria

like Proteus which interfere with other results.:

6. How would you verify that the colonies that grew on a MacConkey agar plate were Gram-

negative?

Crystal violet and bile salts usage helps identify gram negative colonies because they

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Lab 4 Selective Media & Agar BIO250L” stop the growth of gram-positive bacteria thus all that is left in the sample are gram

negative bacteria

7. Look up the formula for MacConkey agar either in a microbiology textbook or online. Is this a

chemically defined or a chemically complex media? Why is that important?

MacConkey agar is a complex chemically defined media because within it there

ingredients that propagate the growth of some bacteria while other ingredients inhibit the

growth of othes.

Insert a photo of your plates. Include your name and access code handwritten in the background of

your photo.

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Lab 4 Selective Media & Agar BIO250L”

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Biotechnology

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for manipulating the genomes of cells are:

1. to eliminate undesirable phenotypic traits in humans, animals, plants and microbes.

2. to combine the beneficial traits of two or more organisms to create a new more valuable organism.

3. to create cells that synthesize products humans need.

Recombinant DNA technology employs a number to tools and techniques to isolate genes and insert them into cells grown in culture. The following are five tools of recombinant DNA technology and examples of application of the tools.

Mutagens are physical and chemical agents that produce mutation.  Some mutations are beneficial, so creating a large number of mutations increases the probability of discovering a beneficial mutation. For example the fungus Penicillium may be mutated to syntheisize a more effective antibiotic. Mutagens include uv radiation and ionizing radiation. Mueller first demonstrated the effects of X rays on Drosophilia, establishing cause and effect between radiation and genetic changes manifested in phenotypic changes.  Chemical mutagens in bacteria may be carcinogenic in humans.  The Ames test utilizes bacteria to test for mutagenic activity, and identify chemicals that may induce cell changes that lead to cancer. Ethidium bromide which may be used to visualize DNA on gel, is also a mutagen because it disrupts base pairing.

1. Explain and describe one physical and one chemical mutagen and its application.

Reverse transcriptase  synthesizes cDNA from mRNA, which is the reverse of information flow as depicted in the central dogma of molecular biology, i.e.  DNA is transcribed to RNA which is translated to peptides. Cells may have millions of copies of mRNA, so being able to synthesize the complementary DNA reveals the gene that is being expressed. In addition, cDNA contains no introns because of processing in the eukaryotic transcription, so that cDNA may be inserted into a prokaryotic cell and may be translated into the corresponding peptide.

2. Explain how reverse transcriptase differs from RNA polymerase.  Give one example of an application of reverse transcriptase in recombinant DNA technology.

Synthetic nucleic acids are synthesized in vitro using enzymes from cells. Currently there are machines that syntheized DNA or RNA by having the sequence of bases entered tthrough a keyborad.

3.  If each letter of the keyboard represents a base in DNA, how many keys does the keyboard require? How does this means of DNA synthesis differ from DNA replication in the cell?

Synthetic nucleic acids were used to elucidate the genetic code, create genes for specific proteins, synthesize probes to locate genes in a genome, to synthesize antisense nucleic acids and to make PCR primers.

4. What is the genetic code, how might a synthetic nucleotide be used to determine which amino acid corrresponds to which codon?

5. Give an example of a probe with a flourescent tag that will be used to locate a gene associated with an aggressive form of breast cancer.

Restiction enzymes cut dsDNA at restriction sites, or palindromes. Examples of restriction enzymes are EcoRI and HindIII.  There are hundreds of restriction enzymes isolated from bacteria and used to cut DNA at predictable sites.  One type of restriction enzyme cuts dsDNA to make blunt ends and the other type creates sticky ends.

6. Compare and contrast blunt and sticky ends, and give one example of each type of restriction enzyme.

Vectors insert DNA into a new cell so that the cell acquires a new phenotype.   Vectors are pieces of DNA that are small enough to manipulate in a lab, survive inside the new cell, contain a recognizalbe genetic marker and carry the gene regions necessary to ensure the gene is transcribed and translated.   Examples of vectors are plasmids, viruses and transposons.

7. Explain one risk of a viral vector that inserts itself into a necessary gene and causes a mutation.

Gene library is a collection of cells or viruses, in which each member carries a portion of a given organism’s genome.  Gene libraries provide a ready

Techniques of recombinant DNA technology include the polymerase chaing reaction (PCR)  developed by Cary Mullis.  PCR has three steps that are repeated while the same sample of primers, target gene, taq polymerase and nucleotides are cycled through three different temperatures in a microfuge tube. Gel electrophoresis separated fragments of molecules by size, shape and charge.  DNA microarrays are able to monitor thousands of genes on one plate. Applications of these techniques include diagnostics or vaccine design.

8. Explain how a subunit vaccine is designed using  genes from a pathogen and a viral vector? p502-504.

One proposed way to stop the spread of arboviruses by mosquitoes is to vaccinate the mosquito.  This type of vaccine is a transmission blocking vaccine (TBV).  One typeof TBV vaccinates the human so that a blood meal from a vaccinated human would prevent the mosquito from being infected.  Another strategy is to use the gene drive known as Crispr-Cas9 which would edit the mosquito genome to confer resistance to diseases mosquitoes transmit to humans, and is very targeted.  This requires wild type mosquitoes to mate with lab mosquitoes that have been genetically modified.  Some data would indicate the lab mosquitoes are not competitve with wild type males.

9. Explain one advantage and one disadvantage of the TBV approach for controlling the spread of arboviruses.

10. Does the public have any control over the use of gene drives to alter species in the ecosystem for public health concerns?

 

 
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BBC Life Primates Film And Questions

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Background

Answer these questions before watching the video by using your text or searching online for answers.  Then use the link above to watch the film and answer the other questions.

 

1.   All animals in this episode of Life are from the Primate order.  This is the full classification of the Primate order.  List one major characteristic that helps define each level.

 

 

Kingdom:  Animalia

 

Phylum:  Chordata

 

Class:  Mammalia

 

 

2.   A cladogram for the major groups of primates is shown to the right.  The order is divided into two categories:  prosimians and anthropoids.

 

a.   Which group evolved earliest?

 

 

 

 

b.    Which group(s) evolved most recently?

 

 

 

 

c.   Would humans be considered prosimians or anthropoids?

 

 

 

 

d.     According to this cladogram, which group of primates is most closely related to humans?

 

 

 

 

 

Primates are divided into two groups:  Prosimians and Anthropoids.  This table summarizes the differences.

 

  Prosimians Anthropoids
Brain Size Smaller Larger
Nails vs. Claws Claws Nails
Vision Partial binocular vision (both eyes facing the same direction working together) Binocular and color vision
Body Size Smaller Larger
Habitats Tropical rainforests Tropical rainforests, grasslands, temperate forests, wetlands
Diurnality Either diurnal (daytime) or nocturnal (nighttime) Almost all diurnal
Olfaction Strong sense of smell Weaker sense of smell
Opposable Digits Some have opposable thumbs and big toes All have opposable thumbs; Most have opposable big toes

 

Introduction

Answer these questions from the opening segment of the video.

 

3.   Describe what is unique about primates in regard to these characteristics:

 

a.   Hands –

 

b.   Eyes –

 

c.   Intelligence –

 

d.   Social Interactions –

 

e.   Memory –

 

Hamadryas  Baboons

 

4.   Are these baboons prosimians or anthropoids?

 

 

 

5.   Describe the social hierarchy of these baboons.

 

 

 

6.   What is the cause of the conflict between the two troops of baboons?

 

 

 

 

Japanese Macaque “Snow Monkeys”

 

7.   Are these macaques prosimians or anthropoids?

 

 

 

8.   These animals are the most northernly-living monkeys.  How are they built differently than other monkeys to survive the harsh winters of the Japanese Alps?

 

 

 

9.   Describe the social hierarchy of these macaques and how it relates to the hot springs.

 

 

 

Western Gorilla

Gorilla gorilla

 

10.                Are gorillas prosimians or anthropoids?

 

 

 

11.                Describe the social hierarchy of these gorillas.

 

 

 

12.                Would these gorillas be considered herbivores, carnivores, or omnivores?

 

 

 

13.                How does the silverback male gorilla communicate his territory to other gorillas?

 

 

 

Spectral Tarsier

Tarsius tarsier

 

14.                Are tarsiers prosimians or anthropoids?

 

 

 

15.                Tarsiers are completely carnivorous.  What is their food source?

 

 

 

16.                The tarsiers have three sets of adaptations that enable them to be successful nocturnal hunters.  Describe the adaptations tarsiers have in each of these body parts:

 

a.   Eyeballs:

 

 

b.   Ears:

 

 

c.   Legs:

 

 

17.                How do the tarsiers communicate with each other?  What reasons do they have to communicate?

 

 

 

18.                The Lar Gibbons also communicate, but for a different reason.  Explain what.

 

 

 

Phayre’s Leaf Monkeys

Trachypithecus phayrei

 

19.                Are the leaf monkeys prosimians or anthropoids?

 

 

 

20.                Why are the baby leaf monkeys a bright orange color?

 

 

 

21.                Describe the social system of leaf monkeys, especially in relation to caring for babies.

 

 

 

 

Ring-Tailed lemur

Lemur catta

 

22.                Are the lemurs prosimians or anthropoids?

 

 

 

23.                Explain how male and female ring-tailed lemurs use scent markers as a means of communication.

 

 

 

24.                How do males compete for the opportunity to mate?

 

Orangutan

Pongo borneo

 

25.                Are the Orangutans prosimians or anthropoids?

 

 

 

26.                How long do Orangutans raise their young?  Is this unusual?

 

 

 

27.                What skills does the mother teach her child before it reaches adulthood?

 

 

 

Chacma baboons

Papio ursinus

 

28.                Are the baboons prosimians or anthropoids?

 

 

 

29.                Why is gathering food such a challenge for Chacma baboons?

 

 

 

30.                What unusual food source do the baboons eat, and where do they find it?

 

 

 

31.                What physical adaptations to the baboons have that allows them to eat mussels?

 

 

 

White-faced Capuchins

Cebus capucinus

 

 

32.                Are the capuchins prosimians or anthropoids?

 

 

 

 

33.                If capuchin monkeys are not strong enough to open clams, how do they eat them?

 

 

 

 

34.                What do brown-tufted capuchins do differently?  Explain why this is considered a more advanced skill.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Chimpanzees

Pan troglodytes

 

35.                Are the chimpanzees prosimians or anthropoids?

 

 

 

 

36.                Describe two examples of how the chimpanzees use tools.

 

 

 

 

37.                Describe the skill of nut-cracking.  Why is this considered a more advanced skill than the capuchins?

 

 

 

 

38.                What unusual social characteristics do chimpanzees exhibit?

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Classification

 

Primates are an order of mammals; one that the human species falls within.  The order is divided into different families based on characteristics such as presence of a prehensile tail, opposable thumb, whether they are ground-dwelling or tree-dwelling.

 

 

Order Marsupialia

“Pouched”

 

Tubulidentata

“Tube-Toothed”

 

 

Hyracoidea

“Short legs and tail”

 

 

Order Primates

“Opposable Thumbs”

 

 

Order Perissodactyla

“Odd-Toed Hooved”

 

 

Order Chiroptera

“Adapted for Flight”

 

 

Class Mammalia

 

 

Order Primates

 

 

Lemurs

“Prosimians of Madagascar”

 

 

 

Tarsiers

“Big Eyes”

 

 

Old World Monkeys

“Non-Prehensile Tail”

 

 

New World Monkeys

“Prehensile Tail”

 

 

 

Gibbons

“Long Arms”

 

 

Orangutans

“Person of the Forest”

 

 

Gorillas

“The Largest Primates”

 

 

Chimpanzees and Bonobos “Closest to Humans”

 

 

Gibbon

 

 

Lemur

 

 

Orangutan

 

 

Tarsier

 

 

Humans

“Man”

 

 

Order Eulipotyphla

“Insectivores with Snouts”

 

 

Rodentia

“Gnawing Hervivores”

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

   

Lemurs

 Tarsiers Old World Monkeys New World Monkeys Gibbons Orangutans Gorillas Chimpanzees Humans IUCN Red list Status
Hamadryas Baboon                    
Japanese Macaque                    
Western Gorilla                    
Spectral Tarsier                    
Lar Gibbon                    
Owl  Monkey                    
Ring-Tailed Lemur                    
Orangutan                    
Chacma Baboon                    
White-Faced Capuchin                    
Chimpanzee                    

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Mark which category the primate is found and then look up their endangered status on the IUCN red list and provide details.

 
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What is energy?

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What is energy?

Question 1 options:

a) energy is force per unit area
b) energy is pressure times distance
c) energy is force times displacement
d) energy is heat delivered per unit time

Save

Question 2 (1 point)

 

When an automobile stops for a stoplight, its kinetic energy

Question 2 options:

a) is converted to thermal energy.
b) completely disappears.
c) is transferred to the pavement.
d) is stored in the automobile’s battery.

Save

Question 3 (1 point)

 

An object of mass 10 kg falls from the top of a building 10 m high and lands on the ground below.  How much work was done by the force of gravity?

Question 3 options:

a) 0 J
b) 98 J
c) 100 J
d) 980 J

Save

Question 4 (1 point)

 

At our present rate of use, the estimated total remaining recoverable petroleum of the U.S. would supply our needs for  about ________ years.

Question 4 options:

a) 72
b) 48
c) 20
d) 8

Save

Question 5 (1 point)

 

The U.S. is using liquid petroleum at a rate of about

Question 5 options:

a) 20 million gallons per day
b) 20 million barrels per day
c) 20 million barrels per week
d) 20 million gallons per week

Save

Question 6 (1 point)

 

A reasonable estimate for Q_infinity(petroleum) for the world is

Question 6 options:

105 million gallons
105 billions gallons
105 trillion gallons
105 quadrillion gallons

Save

Question 7 (1 point)

 

The total annual energy consumption in the  U.S. is about _______ QBtu, and this is about ______ tons of coal per year for each person in the U.S.

Question 7 options:

a) 80, 13
b) 800, 130
c) 8000, 1.4
d) 98, 13

Save

Question 8 (1 point)

 

The estimated total minable coal in the United States is about

Question 8 options:

a) 275 billion tons
b) 500 million tons
c) 500 billion tons
d) 1.5 trillion tons

Save

Question 9 (1 point)

 

If you burned 10 pounds of coal to release the heat, how many pounds of wood would your friend have to burn to release the same amount?

Question 9 options:

a) 10 lbs
b) 12.75 lbs
c) 16.25 lbs
d) 8.0 lbs

Save

Question 10 (1 point)

 

How many Btu’s are there in one kilowatt-hour?

Question 10 options:

a) 4220
b) 3413
c) 2110
d) 1055

Save

Question 11 (1 point)

 

A horizontal force of 80 pounds is exerted on a box which moves the box 10 feet across a horizontal floor in 5 seconds.  What is the power generated by this force?

Question 11 options:

a) 0.66 hp
b) 0.51 hp
c) 0.34 hp
d) 0.29 hp

Save

Question 12 (1 point)

 

In the U.S. we currently import more than _______ of the oil that we consume.

Question 12 options:

a) 10%
b) 50%
c) 33%
d) 66%

Save

Question 13 (1 point)

 

What is a reasonable number for the years remaining until the world’s oil supply is completely depleted?

Question 13 options:

a) 10
b) 50
c) 100
d) 200

Save

Question 14 (1 point)

 

What is coal, mostly?  And which type gives off the most heat when burned?

Question 14 options:

a) carbon, bituminous
b) carbon, anthracite
c) hydrocarbons, lignite
d) hydrocarbons, subbituminous

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Question 15 (1 point)

 

Approximately how much coal is produced each year in the U.S.?

Question 15 options:

a) 1 million tons
b) 1 billion tons
c) 1 trillion tons
d) 2 quadrillion tons

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Question 16 (1 point)

 

When a magnet is moved within or near a conducting coil an electrical current is induced in the coil of wire.  Who discovered this?

Question 16 options:

a) Franklin
b) Edison
c) Maxwell
d) Faraday

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Question 17 (1 point)

 

Your house foundation and ground floor is made up of 1000 cubic feet of concrete.  About how many Btu are required to raise the temperature of the foundation and floor by 25 degrees F? Given:  22 Btu per cubic feed per degreee F for concrete.

Question 17 options:

a) 55,000 Btu
b) 220,000 Btu
c) 250,000 Btu
d) 550,000 Btu

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Question 18 (1 point)

 

What is the typical voltage output of an individual solar cell?

Question 18 options:

a) 0.5 volt
b) 5 volt
c) 9 volt
d) 24 volts

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Question 19 (1 point)

 

Hydroelectric power in the U.S. currently represents about _______% of the total U.S. electricity.

Question 19 options:

40
1
7
less than 1

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Question 20 (1 point)

 

A windmill system which produces 6 kW of electrical power when the wind is blowing 5 m/s will produce _______ kilowatts when the wind is blowing 10 m/s?

Question 20 options:

a) 72
b) 36
c) 48
d) 12

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Question 21 (1 point)

 

Which isotope of uranium is particularly good for fission with thermal neutrons?

Question 21 options:

a) uranium-235
b) uranium-233
c) uranium-238
d) uranium-236

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Question 22 (1 point)

 

What is mean by a “thermal neutron”?

Question 22 options:

a) a neutron with kinetic energy about 5 MeV
b) one of the neutrons which is produced in a typical nuclear fission reaction
c) a neutron inside any large nuclues
d) a neutron with kinetic energy 1/40 of an eV

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Question 23 (1 point)

 

What is the purpose of a breeder reactor?

Question 23 options:

a) reduce the threat of nuclear weapons proliferation
b) to extend the useful lifetime of our uranium
c) to reduce the thermal polution
d) reduce the amount of plutonium produced

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Question 24 (1 point)

 

The mass of your iPod is 100 grams.  The equivalent mass energy is ________.

Question 24 options:

a) 2.5 billion kWh
b) 2.5 trillion kWh
c) 0.83 million kWh
d) 83 trillion kWh

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Question 25 (1 point)

 

What is a reasonable number for the degree days in a heating season in North-Central Minnesota?

Question 25 options:

a) 3,000
b) 5,000
c) 10,000
d) 20,000

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Question 26 (1 point)

 

How many Btu per hour are lost through a 100-square foot wall that is made up of a 12-inch thick concrete block  wall with an R value of 1.89 and 4 inches of fiberglass insulation with an R value of 14.8?  The inside temperature is 65 degrees F and the outside temperature is 15 degrees F.

Question 26 options:

a) 116 Btu/hr
b) 550 Btu/hr
c) 200 Btu/hr
d) 300 Btu/hr

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Question 27 (1 point)

 

There are about 107 million homes in the U.S.  Suppose each home has two people using a hair dryer each day, each for 5 minutes.  The hair dryer consume at a rate of 1000 watts.  How much energy does this take each day?

Question 27 options:

32 trillion joules
64 trillion joules
32 billion joules
64 billion joules

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Question 28 (1 point)

 

How much energy is saved by recycling 3 steel cans per week for a year (as compared to throwing the cans in the trash)?

Question 28 options:

72,000 Btu
155,000 Btu
312,000 Btu
440,000 Btu

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Question 29 (1 point)

 

In the U.S., about _______ QBtu of energy is used each year in fuel used for transportation.

Question 29 options:

a) 27 QBtu
b) 20 QBtu
c) 13 QBtu
d) 6 QBtu

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Question 30 (1 point)

 

According to the Transportation Energy Data Book, the expected fuel economy at 55 miles per hour as compared with 75 miles per hour increases by ______ miles per gallon.

Question 30 options:

a) 7 mpg
b) 5 mpg
c) 2 mpg
d) 10 mpg

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Question 31 (1 point)

 

In terms of traffic fatalities per vehicle mile, which mode of transportation is the safest?

Question 31 options:

a) bus
b) auto
c) airplane
d) train

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Question 32 (1 point)

 

During a vehicle crash, a person undergoes serious accelerations.  What is the maximum magnitude of accleration a person can withstand and still live?

Question 32 options:

a) 10 g
b) 30 g
c) 120 g
d) 60 g

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Question 33 (1 point)

 

Under normal conditions (adiabatic lapse rate is -0.65 degrees C per 100 meters) what is the temperature at the top of an 18,000 foot mountain if the temperature is 72 degrees F at sea level?

Question 33 options:

a) 8 degrees F
b) 12 degrees F
c) 22 degrees F
d) 32 degrees F

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Question 34 (1 point)

 

The springtime pH in Minnesota’s surface water is about 5.0.  This means the H+ concentration is how many times greater than “neutral”?

Question 34 options:

a) 2 times
b) 100 times
c) 56 times
d) 316 times

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Question 35 (1 point)

 

What does the Dobson unit measure?

Question 35 options:

a) concentration of carbon dioxide
b) concentration of ozone
c) concentration of H+ ions
d) concentration of CFCs

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Question 36 (1 point)

 

The carbon dioxide concentration in the atmosphere was about 280 ppm in 1860 (before we began burning fossil fuels).  What is it today?

Question 36 options:

a) 340 ppm
b) 380 ppm
c) 320 ppm
d) 290 ppm

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Question 37 (1 point)

 

Why is it that CO_2 and H_2O are culprits in the so-called greenhouse effect?

Question 37 options:

a) ultraviolet radiation can’t make it past
b) ultraviolet radiation can move right past
c) infrared radiation can’t make it past
d) infrared radiation can move right past

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Question 38 (1 point)

 

The acid rain problem in North America is primarily attributable to

Question 38 options:

a) burning gasoline in our cars
b) burning natural gas in our homes
c) the CO_2 from burning any of the fossil fuels
d) the SO_2 from burning coal at power plants

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Question 39 (1 point)

 

Approximately how many traffic-related fatalities are there per year in the U.S.?

Question 39 options:

a) 42,000
b) 32,000
c) 16,000
d) 8,000

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Question 40 (1 point)

 

What percentage of American workers drive their vehicles to work (alone)?

Question 40 options:

a) 33
b) 46
c) 58
d) 76

 

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