Unit 5 – Central Dogma Assignment

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Assignment for BIO120 Concepts in Biology

Unit 5 Central Dogma

Due: Midnight Sunday of Unit 5

Describe the central dogma of molecular biology; briefly describe the processes of transcription and translation.

The paper should be at least 400- 500 words (~ 1 double-spaced, APA formatted page).

Students: Be sure to read the criteria, by which your paper/project will be evaluated, before you write, and again after you write.

Evaluation Rubric for Unit 5 Central Dogma

  CRITERIA Deficient

(0 Points)

 Proficient

(1 Points)

 Exemplary

(2 Points)

 Points Possible
1. Defines the central dogma of molecular biology. Does not define the central dogma of molecular biology. Inaccurately defines the central dogma of molecular biology. Accurately defines the central dogma of molecular biology. 2
2. Describes the process of transcription. Does not describe the process of transcription. Incorrectly describes the process of transcription or does not describe it completely. Correctly describes the process of transcription or indicates the molecules involved (i.e. enzyme, substrate, product). 2
3. Describes the process of translation. Does not describe the process of translation. Incorrectly describes the process of translation or does not describe it completely. Correctly describes the process of transcription or indicates the molecules involved (i.e. enzyme, substrate, product). 2
4. Indicates where transcription and translation occur in a cell. Does not indicate where transcription and translation occur in a cell. Incorrectly indicates where transcription and translation occur in a cell. Correctly indicates where transcription and translation occur in a cell. 2
5. Grammar, spelling, and formatting The essay does NOT follow the APA format guidelines or contains more than six grammatical errors or misspellings. The essay follows the APA format guidelines but contains three to six grammatical errors or misspellings. The essay follows the APA format guidelines and contains no more than three grammatical errors or misspellings. 2
6. Clear and professional writing Writing is not well-organized or cannot be easily followed or understood. Uses choppy or rambling sentences. Writing is organized and can be followed, The essay contains effective transitions between sentences Writing is clear, professional, and well-organized. Essay is can be easily followed and uses effective transitions between sentences 2
Total Points: 12
 
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Chapter 01: Cellular Biology MCQ

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11.   Which phase of catabolism produces the most ATP?

a. Digestion
b. Glycolysis
c. Oxidation
d. Citric acid cycle

 

 

12.   A nurse is teaching the staff about the three phases of cellular catabolism. Which of the following should the nurse include?

a. Digestion, glycolysis and oxidation, and the citric acid cycle
b. Diffusion, osmosis, and mediated transport
c. S phase, G phase, and M phase
d. Metabolic absorption, respiration, and excretion

 

 

13.   A runner has depleted all the oxygen available for muscle energy. Which of the following will facilitate his continued muscle performance?

a. Electron-transport chain
b. Aerobic glycolysis
c. Anaerobic glycolysis
d. Oxidative phosphorylation

 

 

14.   The faculty member asked the student to identify the appropriate term for the movement of small, electrically uncharged molecules through a semipermeable barrier. Which answer indicates the nursing student understood the teaching?

a. Osmosis
b. Diffusion
c. Hydrostatic pressure
d. Active transport

 

 

15.   A nurse is teaching a patient about fluid and electrolytes. Which of the following indicates the teaching was successful regarding electrolytes? Electrolytes are:

a. Small lipid-soluble molecules
b. Large protein molecules
c. Micronutrients used to produce ATP
d. Electrically charged molecules

 

 

16.   A nurse is reading a chart and sees the term oncotic pressure. The nurse recalls that oncotic pressure (colloid osmotic pressure) is determined by:

a. Concentration of sodium
b. Plasma proteins
c. Hydrostatic pressure
d. Availability of membrane transporter proteins

 

 

17.   A patient has a body fluid of 300 mOsm/kg. This lab result is measuring:

a. Osmolality
b. Osmolarity
c. Osmotic pressure
d. Oncotic pressure

 

 

18.   In teaching a patient with cirrhosis, which information should the nurse include regarding cholesterol?

a. Cholesterol decreases the membrane fluidity of the erythrocyte, which reduces its ability to carry oxygen.
b. Cholesterol decreases the membrane fluidity of erythrocytes, which reduces its ability to carry hemoglobin.
c. Cholesterol increases the membrane fluidity of erythrocytes, which allows binding of excess glucose.
d. Cholesterol increases the membrane fluidity of erythrocytes, which prolongs its life span beyond 120 days.

 

 

19.   A nurse is discussing the movement of fluid across the arterial end of capillary membranes into the interstitial fluid surrounding the capillary. Which process of fluid movement is the nurse describing?

a. Hydrostatic pressure
b. Osmosis
c. Diffusion
d. Active transport

 

 

20.   A patient who has diarrhea receives a hypertonic saline solution intravenously to replace the sodium and chloride lost in the stool. What effect will this fluid replacement have on cells?

a. Cells will become hydrated.
b. Cells will swell or burst.
c. Cells will shrink.
d. Cells will divide.

 

 

21.   A nurse is teaching a patient with diabetes how glucose is transported from the blood to the cell. What type of transport system should the nurse discuss with the patient?

a. Active-mediated transport (active transport)
b. Active diffusion
c. Passive osmosis
d. Passive-mediated transport (facilitated diffusion)

 

 

22.   How are potassium and sodium transported across plasma membranes?

a. By passive electrolyte channels
b. By coupled channels
c. By adenosine triphosphate enzyme (ATPase)
d. By diffusion

 

 

23.   Why is potassium able to diffuse easily in and out of cells?

a. Because potassium has a greater concentration in the intracellular fluid (ICF)
b. Because sodium has a greater concentration in the extracellular fluid (ECF)
c. Because the resting plasma membrane is more permeable to potassium
d. Because there is an excess of anions inside the cell

 

 

24.   The ion transporter that moves Na+ and Ca2+ simultaneously in the same direction is an example of which of the following types of transport?

a. Biport
b. Uniport
c. Antiport
d. Symport

 

 

25.   During which process can lysosomal enzymes be released to degrade engulfed particles?

a. Endocytosis
b. Pinocytosis
c. Phagocytosis
d. Exocytosis

 

 

26.   A nurse is teaching the staff about cholesterol. Which information should be taught? The cellular uptake of cholesterol depends on:

a. Active-mediated transport
b. The antiport system
c. Receptor-mediated endocytosis
d. Passive transport

 

 

27.   Some cancer drugs work during the cell cycle phase where nuclear and cytoplasmic division occurs. What is this cell cycle phase called?

a. G1
b. S
c. M
d. G2

 

 

28.   What causes the rapid change in the resting membrane potential that initiates an action potential?

a. Potassium gates open, and potassium rushes into the cell, changing the membrane potential from negative to positive.
b. Sodium gates open, and sodium rushes into the cell, changing the membrane potential from negative to positive.
c. Sodium gates close, allowing potassium into the cell to change the membrane potential from positive to negative.
d. Potassium gates close, allowing sodium into the cell to change the membrane potential from positive to negative.

 

 

29.   A cell is isolated, and electrophysiology studies reveal that the resting membrane potential is –70 millivolts. The predominant intracellular ion is Na+, and the predominant extracellular ion is K+. With voltage change, which of the following would result in an action potential?

a. K+ rushing into the cell
b. Na+ rushing into the cell
c. Na+ rushing out of the cell
d. K+ rushing out of the cell

 

 

30.   A nurse is teaching the staff about platelet-derived growth factor. Which information should the nurse include? Platelet-derived growth factor (PDGF) stimulates the production of:

a. Platelets
b. Epidermal cells
c. Connective tissue cells
d. Fibroblast cells

 

 

31.   The phase of the cell cycle during which the centromeres split and the sister chromatids are pulled apart is referred to as:

a. Anaphase
b. Telophase
c. Prophase
d. Metaphase

 

 

32.   What is the role of cytokines in cell reproduction?

a. Provide growth factor for tissue growth and development
b. Block progress of cell reproduction through the cell cycle
c. Restrain cell growth and development
d. Provide nutrients for cell growth and development

 

 

33.   A biopsy of the lung bronchi revealed ciliated epithelial cells that are capable of secretion and absorption. These cells are called _____ columnar epithelium.

a. Simple
b. Ciliated simple
c. Stratified
d. Pseudostratified ciliated

 

 

34.   The nurse would be correct in identifying the predominant extracellular cation as:

a. Sodium
b. Potassium
c. Chloride
d. Glucose

 

 

35.   The student is reviewing functions of the cell. The student would be correct in identifying the primary function of the nerve cell as:

a. Sensory interpretation
b. Conductivity
c. Maintenance of homeostasis
d. Communication

 

 

36.   The student is studying for a pathophysiology exam and is trying to remember the definition of amphipathic. The student should choose which of the following to be correct?

a. All cells have a membrane that is composed of lipids.
b. Cells have organelles that have specialized function.
c. Molecules are polar with one part loving water and one part hating water.
d. Cells have receptor sites that other substances attach to and create additional functions.

 

 

MULTIPLE RESPONSE

 

1.   A nurse recalls that the four basic types of tissues are (select all that apply):

a. Nerve
b. Epithelial
c. Mucosal
d. Connective
e. Skeletal
f. Muscle

 

 

2.   Characteristics of prokaryotes include which of the following? (Select all that apply.)

a. They contain no organelles.
b. Their nuclear material is not encased by a nuclear membrane.
c. They contain a distinct nucleus.
d. They contain histones.
e. They contain a cellular membrane.

 

 

 
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Wildlife

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Assignment 5

1. Loggerheads, like the ridley turtles, are diurnal nesters:

A. True

B. False

2. Loggerheads nest over the greatest geographic range of any sea turtle.

A. True

B. False

3. The scientific name for the Kemp’s ridley turtle is: ____________________________

4. Andres Herrera’s contribution to sea turtle knowledge and conservation was:

A. The protection of arribada sites in Costa Rica

B. The determination of the genetic origin of loggerhead populations

C. N one of the answers is correct.

D. The discovery of the “lost years” of the Kemp’s ridley

E. The discovery and recording of a Kemp’s ridley arribada.

5. In 1947, 40,000 Kemp’s ridley females were photographed on a nesting beach in Costa Rica. Sadly, by 1980, fewer than 300 females came ashore to nest

A. True

B. False

6. Japan is too far north (too cold) to permit loggerheads to nest on Japanese beaches

A. True

B. False

7. By 1990, biologists estimated that the number of female Kemp’s ridleys in the entire Gulf of Mexico numbered _________________, making it one of the most endangered species in the world.

A. Less than 100

B. There are no estimates of Kemp’s ridley numbers from this time period.

C. About2000

D. About500

8. During their “lost years”, loggerheads are at sea in ocean currents for 2-5 years.

A. True

B. False

9. Headstarting” turtles is controversial because of the ethical considerations regarding the skin grafts used for marking these young turtles

A. True

B. False

10. It takes about 25-35 years for a loggerhead to become a reproducing adult.

A. True

B. False

11. Unlike most other sea turtles, adult male Kemp’s ridleys do not migrate, and adult females rarely leave the vicinity of the Gulf of Mexico.

A. True

B. False

12. The scientific name for the loggerhead turtle is: __________________________

13. One of the reasons that Kemp’s ridleys are vulnerable to overexploitation is that the bulk of nesting occurs along 29 miles of beach in Florida.

A. True

B. False

14. Mitochondrial DNA testing has provided a window into the lineage of the various populations of loggerheads around the world

A. True

B. False

15. Research indicates that one effect of shade from tall buildings in Florida on nesting beaches is cooler beaches, resulting in a higher proportion of ______________ nestlings compared to beaches without tall buildings

16. Since TEDs are now being used in many places throughout the world, fishing practices are no longer a significant mortality source for loggerhead adults.

A. True

B. False

17. The primary purpose of the “ridley dance” is:

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=QUt-XqWs1iE

A. to scare away predators
B. to signal that this territory is taken
C. All of these answers are correct.
D. to compact the sand over the eggs
E. to display availability to male ridleys

18. Loggerheads are referred to as “keystone species” because they:

  dig up the bottom in foraging areas and thus alter the composition of the ocean bottom communities
  A. all of these answers are correct

B. transfer huge loads of ocean nutrients to the land around nesting beaches

C. provide habitat for symbionts as “living reefs”

D. distribute shells of prey (calcium) throughout their foraging areas

 

19. Kemp’s ridleys never leave the Gulf of Mexico.

A. True

B. False

20. The primary predator of loggerhead nests in the U.S. are
 
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Genetics Two Question

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Genetics 303 Dr. Joe Staton

Fourth exam—take home

Answer on separate paper, show all work, and be neat in the reporting of answers. STAPLE YOUR RESULTS!

 

1. In a human population, the genotype frequencies at one locus are 0.75 AA, 0.22 Aa, and 0.03 aa. What is the frequency

of the A allele [f(A)] and a allele [f(a)] for the population? Are they in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?

 

2. Calculate the number of heterozygotes in a population with p = 0.65 and q = 0.35 (at time = 0). After 4 generations of

inbreeding between siblings (F = 0.25) in a population of 1000.

 

3. Human albinism is an autosomal recessive trait. Suppose that you find an isolated village in the Andes where seven

people are albino. If the population size of the village was 1777 and the population is in Hardy-Weinberg

equilibrium with respect to this trait, how many individuals are expected to be carriers (heterozygotes)?

 

4. A boatload of Swedish tourists, all of whom bear the MM blood group, is marooned on Haldane Island, where they are

met by an equally sized population of Islanders, all bearing blood group NN. In time, the castaways become

integrated into Island society. Assuming random mating, no mutation, no selection (based on blood group), and no

genetic drift, what would you expect the blood group distribution to be among 5000 progeny of the new Haldane

Island population?

 

5. You identify a population of mice (Peromyscus maniculatus) on an island. Their coat color is controlled by a single

gene: BB mice are black, Bb mice are gray, and bb mice are white. You take a census of the population and record

the following numbers of mice:

Black 432

Gray 576

White 192

(a) What are the frequencies of the two alleles?

(b) What are the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium frequencies for these three phenotypes?

(c) A heat wave hits the island. All mice with black fur die from heat stroke, but the other mice survive. What are the new

allele frequencies for the population?

(d) If the population suffers no further cataclysms after the heat wave, and the surviving animals mate randomly, what will

be the frequency of mice with black fur in the next generation?

(e) If the climate is altered permanently, so that mice with black fur die before reproducing, which following statement is

correct?

(1) At Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, f(B) will equal 0.135.

(2) The fitness of mice with gray fur (ωBb) must be equal to 0.5.

(3) The fitness of mice with black fur (ωBB) is 0.

(4) The B allele will disappear from the population in one generation.

(5) The B allele will disappear from the population in two generations.

 

6. Which of the following are requirements for evolution by natural selection? Explain your answer.

I Environmental change

II Differential survival and reproduction

III Heritability of phenotypic variation

IV Variation in phenotype

V Sexual reproduction

 

A) II, III, V B) II, III, IV C) I, II, IV D) III, IV, V E) II, IV, V

 

 

 

7. Which of the following processes is the source (origin) of genetic variation within populations?

A) Reproductive Isolation

B) Asexual reproduction

C) Selection

D) Mutation

E) Genetic drift

Explain your answer including a description of what the others do to variation.

 

8. If the population (14,926 in 2013) of folks in Perry, GA, have an f(a) = 0.1 and folks in Valdosta, GA, has a f(a) = 0.5,

then how many people from Valdosta, GA, would have to migrate to Perry to increase the population to at least

f(a) = 0.15?

 

9. What is the Ne of a population with the following annual censuses, [note the drop in size due to 2004 being an extreme

drought year]?

2001: 9,700

2002: 8,800

2003: 4,600

2004: 400

2005: 2,400

2006: 3,800

2007: 7,650

2008: 9,400

2009: 10,700

2010: 12,110

2011: 17,060

2012: 19,471

2013: 22,834

2014: 25,891

 

10. Consider the following populations that have the genotypes shown in the following table:

Population AA Aa aa

1 1.0 0.0 0.0

2 0.0 1.0 0.0

3 0.25 0.50 0.25

4 0.25 0.25 0.50

5 0.32 0.36 0.32

6 0.04 0.32 0.64

7 0.9025 0.095 0.0025

a. What are p and q for each population?

b. Which of the populations are in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?

c. Populations 1 and 2 have a tree fall across their islands so that individuals can cross. If equal numbers of the

individuals occur on each island, what is the new population’s allele frequencies and genotype frequencies

after one generation of random mating?

d. In population 3, the a allele is less fit than the A allele, and the A allele is incompletely dominant. The result

is that AA is perfectly fit (= 1.0), Aa has a fitness of 0.85, and aa has a fitness of 0.65. With no mutation or

migration, graph the allele frequency of the a allele for 10 generations under selection (e.g., Time 0 = q above,

Time 1 = first generation after selection)

e. In population 8, the population size gets radically reduced to 200 individuals, total. What is the most likely

fate of the “a” allele, and what genetic principle would lead you to believe that the case?

 

 

 

11. You are given the following genetic data matrix of distances for crustaceans calculated for a region of the mtDNA

called the 16S rDNA: Brine Shrimp Striped-leg hermit King Crab Soldier crab Flat-claw hermit Long-clawed hermit

Brine Shrimp ─

Striped-leg hermit 0.354 ─

King Crab 0.309 0.260 ─

Soldier crab (hermit) 0.321 0.268 0.067 ─

Flat-claw hermit 0.337 0.245 0.108 0.111 ─

Long-clawed hermit 0.312 0.249 0.090 0.096 0.044 ─

 

Calculate the average distance and draw the resulting UPGMA tree based on these distances. Write a brief interpretation

of the branching pattern in the tree.

 

12. You digest a linear piece of DNA with two restriction enzymes, BamH1 & Sma1, and get the following sized

fragments (in kb [kilobases]):

 

BamHI SmaI BamHI & SmaI

13 kb 11 kb 10 kb

6 kb 5 kb 5 kb

3 kb 3 kb

1 kb

Draw the appropriate restriction fragment map based on this data labeling all restriction sites.

 
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