BIOLOGY ESSAY QUESTIONS

Answer five of the seven essay questions (no extra credit for extra work)

 

Each essay question is worth 20 points. Response should be at least 150 words long. Sentences should be well developed, show logical and independent critical thinking, understanding of the concepts and their application to provided case studies/scenarios. Answers should be written in your own words.

 

1. While working at an excavation, an archeologist found several small skull bones. She examines the frontal, parietal, and occipital bones and concludes that the skull belonged to a child not even one year old. How can she tell the child’s age from examining the bones? Explain the importance of her finding in relationship to the infant’s postnatal development.

 

2. Michael is a thirty year old salesman who spends approximately 4 days each week traveling to visit with customers in his region. During his routine physical he casually mentions to his physician that he seems to be sweating more profusely than normal and most rooms that once were comfortable are now too “hot”. Michael also reports that he seems to be losing weight even though his appetite has increased. He also complains that he has a shortened attention span and that he always wants to be moving around. Despite the fact that he feels fatigued, Michael claims to have difficulty sleeping and seems to have more frequent bowel movements, occasionally accompanied by diarrhea. The physician checks Michael’s medical history and finds that indeed he has lost 15 pounds since his last physical.

 

Results of Michael’s physical examination and tests performed by endocrinologist concluded that Michael had Grave’s disease, a form of hyperthyroidism believed to be autoimmune in nature. Michael was presented with a number of possible treatment options. After considering all the options, especially the possible effects of radiation on gamete development, Michael chose surgical removal of the thyroid gland. Following successful surgery, Michael was prescribed synthetic thyroid hormone to ensure that his body was receiving adequate thyroid hormone and told to return within 2 months for a follow-up evaluation of circulating thyroid hormone concentrations. He was also cautioned to carefully monitor his calcium intake.

 

a. Thyroid hormones exert their effects on cells in a manner similar to steroid hormones; describe the mechanism of action of thyroid hormones.

 

b. Why would an imbalance in thyroid hormones have such widespread effects on the body?

 

3. Charlie is badly burned in a fireworks accident on the Fourth of July. When he reaches the emergency room, the examining physician determines the severity of the incident as a third-degree burn. What therapeutic measures is the physician likely to recommend? What are the major concerns with third-degree burns? Are third-degree burns more or less painful than the second-degree burns? Explain.

 

4. E.M.S. went to bed about 11 PM after a busy evening of entertaining friends and family. He was awakened at 2 AM with chest pain that radiated to his left shoulder, arm and fingers. His son took him to the emergency room, where he was immediately given oxygen by mask and nitroglycerin. His chest pain was relieved in about 39 minutes. An ECG revealed evidence of myocardial ischemia but no evidence of a myocardial infarction. He was admitted to the cardiac intensive unit for further evaluation.

 

a. What’s the most likely cause of the pain (what’s the name of the condition and what causes it)?

 

b. What kind of medication is nitroglycerin and why does it help to relieve the pain? What are other treatment options for this condition?

 

c. Define the underlined terms.

 

5. Until recently, 6-year-old Billie had no apparent health problems. About 1 week ago, she started to lose weight despite a healthy appetite. She urinated frequently and complained of being tired. Her mom noticed that she was very thirsty and was getting up in the middle of the night to urinate. On examination, her blood sugar was elevated. She was diagnosed with type 1 (juvenile-onset) diabetes mellitus.

 

a. Which homeostatic mechanism is not properly functioning?

 

b. Explain the physiology of this disease, what’s going wrong? Be specific.

 

c. What can happen if the diabetes is not controlled?

 

6. Keith is a college student. He is extremely busy studying and working part-time. Keith sleeps in late and therefore does not take time for breakfast. He rushes off to class. At lunch he has time for only French fries. When he gets home from school, he eats canned corn (only corn, nothing else) and washes it down with water. Then, he goes to work, only to start the same routine the next day.

 

When Keith is confronted about his poor diet, he responds, “The French fries are a good source of carbohydrates. Since they are fried in oil, I get my daily requirement of fat. At supper time, I eat corn and it has a lot of amino acids in it.” You, a medical student, suggest that Keith see a doctor. Keith complies and makes an appointment with a doctor. The doctor’s report looks like this: Keith is pale and underweight, his urine and blood pH are low, and the ketones in the urine and blood are high. The Na+ concentration in the blood is low. Keith seems to have possible nerve problems. The doctor explains that Keith is pale due to anemic conditions brought on by the poor diet. With a poor protein diet, Keith’s erythrocytes may not be making adequate hemoglobin. Because his diet is very low in carbohydrates, his body is metabolizing fat, which is causing the weight loss. By products of fat metabolism are ketones, which are acidic. This accounts for the increase in ketones in the urine and the blood and a drop in the pH. A drop in blood pH will inhibit the small intestine from putting Na+ into the bloodstream. Sodium ions are necessary for proper nerve function. In short, Keith needs to begin eating well-balanced meals.

 

a. Why is corn considered to be an incomplete protein?

 

b. How are ketones formed?

 

c. How are sodium ions involved in the nervous system?

 

d. How does this scenario relate to fad diets?

 

7. Analyze the need of climbers of Mt. Everest to set up camps at various levels and stay in those camps for a predetermined amount of time before proceeding with their climb to the top of the mountain.

 

 
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The Epipelagic Is Divided Into Two Components: The Oceanic Waters And The

Question

1 of 25

The epipelagic is divided into two components: the oceanic waters and the

photic zone.

neritic zone.

pelagic realm.

upper photic zone.

subtidal zone.

Question

2 of 25

Most of the primary production carried out in the open ocean is performed by

seaweeds.

kelps.

phytoplankton.

seagrasses.

zooxanthellae.

Question

3 of 25

Net phytoplankton consist mostly of

copepods.

diatoms and dinoflagellates.

nanoplankton.

cyanobacteria (blue-green algae).

nanoplankton and diatoms.

Question

4 of 25

Typically the most abundant group in the zooplankton are the.

larvaceans.

krill.

fish larvae.

nanoplankton.

copepods.

Question

5 of 25

Which of these is least likely to be seen in the epipelagic?

Suspension feeders

Deposit feeders

Primary production

First-level carnivores

Second-level carnivores

Question

6 of 25

Which of these groups builds a mucus “house?”

Copepods

Arrow worms

Larvaceans

Planktonic snails such as pteropods

Snail larvae

Question

7 of 25

Which of the following accounts for about 50% of the primary production in epipelagic waters?

Diatoms

Cyanobacteria

Dinoflagellates

Coccolithophorids

Silicoflagellates

Question

8 of 25

The following are an adaptation to the planktonic way of life except

spines.

small size.

decrease in drag.

substitution of heavy ions by light ones.

gas-filled bladders.

Question

9 of 25

The storage of lipids within the body is an adaptation in plankton since lipids

make cells heavier.

increase body density.

contain air pockets so they help in buoyancy.

contain a larger amount of energy.

are less dense than water.

Question

10 of 25

The neuston consists of animals that

swim against currents.

sink to the bottom portion of the water column.

are top carnivores in the pelagic realm.

spend their entire lives in the plankton.

live at the surface, but remain underwater.

Question

11 of 25

Counter shading is a form of

shading with bioluminescence.

warning coloration.

structural coloration.

protective coloration.

cryptic coloration.

Question

12 of 25

The rete mirabile found in some fishes is involved in.

increasing speed.

decreasing buoyancy.

digesting food.

increasing buoyancy.

conserving body heat.

Question

13 of 25

Zooplankton that migrate vertically

hibernate at night and feed during the day.

feed at the surface during the day, and migrate below the photic zone at night.

feed in the photic zone during the day, and migrate to the surface at night.

stay below the photic zone during the day, and feed at the surface at night.

migrate up and down but always stay below the photic zone.

Question

14 of 25

Most animals in the epipelagic are omnivores. This means that they eat

producers and consumers.

part of the neuston.

zooplankton.

detritus.

phytoplankton.

Question

15 of 25

What is the relationship between dissolved organic matter (DOM) and bacteria in the epipelagic?

Bacteria feed on the DOM, making it available to other animals in the food chain that feed on bacteria.

Bacteria supply most of the DOM.

Bacteria feed on DOM and thus it is unavailable to other animals.

Bacteria cannot utilize DOM and thus feed on detritus, depleting it through most of the epipelagic.

Bacteria cannot utilize DOM, making it available to animals.

Question

16 of 25

The most common limiting nutrient in the ocean is

silicon.

oxygen.

nitrogen.

carbonate.

phosphorus.

Question

17 of 25

The fall bloom in temperate waters is caused when

primary production decreases as nutrients increase.

primary production decreases due to light limitation.

primary production decreases as nutrients decrease.

primary production increases as nutrients increase.

primary production increases as the number of zooplankton increases.

Question

18 of 25

Equatorial upwelling occurs as a result of

temperature changes at the Equator.

the divergence of equatorial surface currents.

the convergence of equatorial surface currents.

winds causing the Ekman transport of surface water offshore.

El Niño conditions north and south of the Equator.

Question

19 of 25

The Southern Oscillation can be best described as

relative changes between two pressure systems.

variation in wind speed over the Pacific Ocean.

relationship between sea-surface and high-altitude pressures.

tidal differences between the Indian and Pacific Oceans.

wind-speed differences along the Equator.

Question

20 of 25

The long spines and projections seen in many epipelagic plankton are used for

feeding.

reproduction.

increasing drag.

increasing buoyancy.

gathering nutrients.

Question

21 of 25

Most epipelagic fish have a tail that is

short and wide.

short and narrow.

short and thin.

high and wide.

high and narrow.

Question

22 of 25

Which of the following adaptations is least likely to be seen in epipelagic fish?

Stiff fins

A smooth, scaleless body

Increased white muscle

Grove in body for fins

Eyes flush with body

Question

23 of 25

The largest source of dissolved organic material (DOM) in the epipelagic is

viruses.

bacteria.

phytoplankton.

zooplankton.

nekton.

Question

24 of 25

The lateral line system in fishes functions in ________________.

sensing vibrations in the water

detecting magnetic lines of force in water

sensing light in aphotic zones

sweeping surrounding water for plankton

bioluminescence

Question

25 of 25

The remote sensing system found in dolphins and some other cetaceans is ___________.

communal mutualistic behavior

extrasensory perception

echolocation

underwater acoustic sensitivity

heightened smell

 

 

 

 
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Biology Solutions 100% A+

Exam 3 Biology 1307

1. True or False. All protists are eukaryotic.

A. true

B. false

2. Chloroplasts arose via _____.

A. endosymbiosis of dinoflagellates

B. endosymbiosis of cyanobacteria

C. endosymbiosis of fungi

D. endosymbiosis of euglenids

3. According to the endosymbiosis theory, how many membranes should a mitochondrion have?

A. One

B. Three

C. Two

D. Zero

4. You are given an unknown organism to identify. It is unicellular and heterotrophic. It is motile, using many short extensions of the cytoplasm. It has well-developed organelles and two nuclei, one large and one small. This organism is most likely to be a ________.

A. foraminiferan

B. diatom

C. ciliate

D. dinoflagellate

E. slime mold

5. Which of the following statements is consistent with the assertion that protists are paraphyletic?

A. There is no common set of synapomorphies that define a protist

B. Protists all share a common set of synapomorphies.

C. Protists are all more primitive than land plants and animals.

D. Protists do not share a single common ancestor.

6. Encouraging the growth (via nutrient fertilization) of photosynthetic protists in marine environments may help reduce global warming because _____.

A. the increased oxygen consumption by large populations of photosynthetic protists will increase photosynthesis in land plants

B. photosynthetic protists are primary consumers in many marine food chains

C. photosynthetic protists fix atmospheric carbon dioxide, decreasing atmospheric carbon dioxide levels

7. Encouraging the growth (via nutrient fertilization) of photosynthetic protists in marine environments may help reduce global warming because ________.

A) photosynthetic protists are primary consumers in many marine food chains

B) photosynthetic protists fix atmospheric carbon dioxide, decreasing atmospheric carbon

dioxide levels

C) the increased oxygen consumption by large populations of photosynthetic protists will increase photosynthesis in land plants

D) photosynthetic protists would release a lot of oxygen, and fertilizing them would increase levels of oxygen in the atmosphere

8. Which of these taxa contains species that produce potent toxins that can cause extensive fish kills, contaminate shellfish, and poison humans?

A. red algae

B. dinoflagellates

C. diplomonads

D. euglenids

9. Which of the following might be a result of adding a secondary consumer to the aquatic ecosystem in the accompanying illustration?

A. a decrease in the number of primary consumers

B. a decrease in the population of decomposers

C. an increase in atmospheric carbon dioxide

D. an increase in the population of scavengers

E. a decrease in the carbon sink

10. The Irish potato famine was caused by an organism that belongs to which species?

A. Phytophtorainfestans

B. Trichomonas vaginalis

C. Giardia spp.

D. Trypanozomacruzi

11. Which of the following eukaryotic lineages contains species that all lack functioning mitochondria?

A. Excavata

B. Rhizaria

C. Amoebozoa

D. Stramenopila

12. Pseudopods that can perform phagocytosis and have the ability to change their shape are generally characteristic of which group?

A. radiolarians

B. amoebas

C. slime molds

D. oomycetes

13. Which of the following is a synapomorphy that defines all green algae and land plants?

A. Seeds B. Vascular tissue C. Cell walls D, Photosynthetic chloroplasts

14. One of the fish in your aquarium dies. Adding which protist to the water would allow you to avoid flushing the dead fish by speeding its decay?

A. an apicomplexan

B. a dinoflagellata

C. a water mold

D. a ciliate

E. a euglenid

15. According to the endosymbiotic theory, why was it adaptive for the larger (host) cell to keep the engulfed cell alive, rather than digesting it as food?

A. The engulfed cell provided the host cell with adenosine triphosphate (ATP).

B. The engulfed cell provided the host cell with carbon dioxide.

C. The engulfed cell allowed the host cell to metabolize glucose.

D. The host cell was able to survive anaerobic conditions with the engulfed cell alive.

E. The host cell would have been poisoned if it had digested the engulfed cell.

16. Alternation of generations occurs in some protists. Which of the following represents the correct sequence of events for this mode of reproduction?

A. gametophyte → gamete → fusion → sporophyte → spore → gametophyte

B. sporophyte → spore fusion → gametophyte → gamete → sporophyte

C. gametophyte → fusion → sporophyte → spore → gamete → gametophyte

D. gamete → fusion → gametophyte →spore → sporophyte → gamete

17. In examining a protist, you notice that it lacks a cell wall, and has movement with cytoplasmic streaming. These data allow you to infer that the species belongs to which of the following protist groups?

A. Excavata

B. Stramenopila

C. Rhizaria

D. Alveolata

E. Amoebozoa

18. Chagas disease is spread by the “kissing bug”. This disease affect 16-18 million people around the world and causes about 50,000 deaths annually and is caused by which protist?

A. Giardia

B. Trichomonas vaginalis

C. Trypanosoma cruzi

D. Plasmodioum

19. Dysentery is caused by _______________ and causes severe diarrhea. It is mostly prevalent in countries with a warm climate and poor sanitary conditions. In some places it is known as “Montezuma’s revenge”. Which of the following protists causes dysentery

A. Entamoeba histolytica

B. Phytophthora infestans

C. Plasmodioum

D. Dinoflagellates

20. What impact will the loss of land plants have on the soil?

A. Increase soil stability

B. Increase soil erosion

C. Increase nutrient levels

D. Decrease surface temperature

21. The major function of the medicinal compounds in plants is to _____.

A. as defense against herbivores

B. attract pollinators for seed dispersal

C. attract insects and birds to spread seeds and fruits

D. defend the plant against microbes

22. The most direct ancestors of land plants were probably _____.

A. liverworts and mosses B. green algae C. kelp (brown alga) D. cyanobacteria

23. What evidence indicates the movement of plants from water to land?

A. sporopollenin to inhibit evaporation from leaves

B. loss of structures that produce spores

C. remnants of chloroplasts from photosynthesizing cells

D. waxy cuticle to decrease evaporation from leaves

24. Which of these time intervals, based on plant fossils, came last (most recently)?

A. carboniferous swamps with giant horsetails and ferns

B. rise and diversification of angiosperms

C. colonization of land by early liverworts and mosses

D. extensive growth of gymnosperm forests

25. Angiosperms are the most successful terrestrial plants. Which of the following features is unique to them and helps account for their success?

A. embryos enclosed within seed coats

B. sperm cells without flagella

C. fruits enclosing seeds which contain the plant embryo

D. wind pollination

26. Protists and bacteria are grouped into different domains because _____.

A. bacteria are not made of cells

B. protists have a membrane-bounded nucleus, which bacterial cells lack

C. protists eat bacteria

D. protists are photosynthetic

27. The term gymnosperm refers to plants _____.

A. with “naked seeds” that do not produce flowers

B. that are non-vascular

C. that flower

D. with seeds protected within a fruit

28. What trait gives seeds an advantage over spores?

A. Protected from the environment

B. Small in size

C. Contain nutrients

D. Long-lived

29. Which of the following was a challenge to the survival of the first land plants?

A. desiccation

B. too much sunlight

C. a shortage of carbon dioxide

D. animal predation

30. _____ are angiosperms.

A. Roses

B. Fiddlehead ferns

C. Sphagnum mosses

D. Pine trees

31. Primary producers such as plants and green algae ____________.

A. Convert solar energy (light) to chemical energy (sugars)

B. Decompose decaying material in soil to produce energy

C. Consume other organisms to produce chemical energy (sugars) and solar energy (light)

D. Produce CO2 by performing photosynthesis

32. Plants provide many ecosystem services including production of oxygen and holding the soil. What is an ecosystem?

A. All the organisms or biotic factors in a particular area

B. All the living and nonliving components in a particular area

C. The nonliving or abiotic components in a particular area

D. All plants and animals in a given region

33. Stoma (plural: stomata) are____________.

A. Small openings called pores surrounded by specialized guard cells

B. Watertight sealants produced by plants to avoid desiccation

C. Specialized organelles in plant cells to perform photosynthesis

D. Modified leaves in a plant to avoid predation by herbivores

34. Flowers, the reproductive organ of a flowering plant, has two key reproductive structures called:

A. Seed and pistil

B. Stamen and fruit

C. Stamen and pistil

D. Seed and anther

35. The three main ways in which pollen is transported from plant to plant or flower to flower are:

A. Animals, wind, water

B. Wind, fungi, water

C. Animals, bees, wind

D. Fungi, water, insects

36. _____________ is a process by which pollen is transferred in plants.

A. Pollen grains

B. Style

C. Pollination

D. Translocation

37. True or False. The female part of the flower is the stamen.

A. True B. False

38. True or False. The main function of the endosperm is to provide nutrients for the embryo plant.

A. True B. False

39. True or False. Plants and not algae are the main primary producers in Earth’s oceans.

A. True B. False

40. True or False. Bryophytes such as mosses lack vascular tissue (xylem and phloem).

A. True B. False

41. Root hairs are most important to a plant because they ________.

A. anchor a plant in the soil

B. store starches

C. increase the surface area for absorption

D. provide a habitat for nitrogen-fixing bacteria

E. contain xylem tissue

42. As fuels, wood and coal ________.

A) are the main fuel sources in industrialized countries today.

B) are both formed from living or fossil plants.

C) are both formed under pressure deep in the Earth.

D) are sustainable as they are even now being made at high rates.

43. Molecular phylogenies show all land plants are a monophyletic group. This suggests ________.

A) there were many different transitions from aquatic to terrestrial habitats

B) wind-pollinated plants arose first

C) land plants have undergone a diversification since they first colonized terrestrial habitats

D) there was a single transition from aquatic to terrestrial habitats

44. Which of these time intervals, based on plant fossils, came last (most recently)?

A) extensive growth of gymnosperm forests

B) Silurian-Devonian explosion with fossils of plant lineages containing most of the major morphological innovations

C) colonization of land by early liverworts and mosses

D) rise and diversification of angiosperms

E) carboniferous swamps with giant horsetails and lycophytes

45. Why are seedless vascular plants considered paraphyletic rather than monophyletic?

A) Some of the groups within the seedless vascular plants are more closely related to each other than to other groups (such as Lycophyta).

B) They share a more recent common ancestor with seeded plants than they do with the non-vascular plants.

C) All of the groups contained within the seedless vascular plants do not have the same ancestor.

D) The group includes their common ancestor but also the seeded descendants of that same ancestor.

46. Which set contains the most closely related terms?

A) megasporangium, megaspore, pollen, ovule

B) microsporangium, microspore, egg, ovary

C) megasporangium, megaspore, egg, ovule

D) microsporangium, microspore, carpel, ovary

47. In the process of alternation of generations, the ________.

A) sporophyte is haploid and produces gametes

B) sporophyte is diploid and produces spores

C) gametophyte is haploid and produces spores

D) gametophyte is diploid and produces gametes

E) spores unite to form a zygote

48. Where are you LEAST likely to see green algae?

A) as pink snow in the mountains in summer

B) growing symbiotically with fungi in lichens or with some invertebrate animals

C) growing independently on dry rock in meadows

D) growing independently on wet rock in ponds and lakes

E) floating in seas and oceans

49. When a mosquito infected with Plasmodium first bites a human, the Plasmodium ________.

A) gametes fuse, forming an oocyst

B) cells infect the human liver cells

C) cells cause lysing of the human red blood cells

D) oocyst undergoes meiosis

50. Carbon dioxide enters the inner spaces of the leaf through the ________.

A) cuticle

B) epidermal trichomes

C) stoma

D) phloem

E) walls of guard cells

51. Which part of a plant absorbs most of the water and minerals taken up from the soil?

A) root cap

B) root hairs

C) the thick parts of the roots near the base of the stem

D) storage roots

E) sections of the root that have secondary xylem

52. When an animal cell is placed in a hypotonic solution and water enters the cell via osmosis, the volume of the cell increases until it bursts. This does NOT happen to plant cells, because ________.

A) they have large central vacuoles, which provide abundant space for storage of incoming water

B) the composition of their plasma membranes differs from that of animal-cell plasma membranes in a way that provides much greater strength

C) they have cell walls, which prevent the entry of water by osmosis

D) they have cell walls, which provide pressure to counteract the pressure of the incoming water

E) certain gated channel proteins embedded in their plasma membranes open as osmotic pressure decreases, allowing excess water to leave the cell

53. Compared to a cell with few aquaporins in its membrane, a cell containing many aquaporins will ________.

A) have a faster rate of osmosis

B) have a lower water potential

C) have a higher water potential

D) have a faster rate of active transport

E) be flaccid

54. Which cells in a root form a protective barrier to the vascular system where all materials must move through the symplast?

A) pericycle

B) cortex

C) epidermis

D) endodermis

E) exodermis

55. You are conducting an experiment on plant growth. You take a plant fresh from the soil that weighs 5 kilograms (kg). Then you dry the plant overnight and determine the dry weight to be 1 kg. Of this dry weight, how much would you expect to be made up of oxygen, carbon, and hydrogen?

A) 1 gram

B) 4 grams

C) 40 grams

D) 960 grams

E) 1 kg

56. Which of the following statements about essential nutrients are TRUE? Essential nutrients ________.

I. are necessary for plant growth and reproduction

II. are required for a specific structure or metabolic function

III.cannot be synthesized by a plant

IV.are produced by symbiotic bacteria

A) I and IV

B) II, III, and IV

C) I, II, and III

D) I, II, III, and IV

57. Which criteria allow biologists to divide chemicals into macronutrients and micronutrients?

A) molecular weight of the element or compound

B) the quantities of each required by plants

C) how they are used in metabolism

D) whether or not they are essential for plant growth

58. A mineral deficiency is likely to affect older leaves more than younger leaves if the ________.

A) mineral is a micronutrient

B) mineral is very mobile within the plant

C) mineral is required for chlorophyll synthesis

D) mineral is a macronutrient

E) older leaves are in direct sunlight

59.Which of the following elements correctly pairs an essential element in plants with its function?

A) nitrogen–component of nucleic acids, proteins, hormones, coenzymes

B) magnesium–component of nucleic acids, phospholipids, ATP

C) phosphorus–cofactor functioning in protein synthesis

D) sulfur–component of DNA; activates some enzymes

60.Why is nitrogen fixation an essential process?

A) Fixed nitrogen is often the limiting factor in plant growth.

B) Nitrogen fixation is very expensive in terms of metabolic energy.

C) Nitrogen-fixing capacity can be genetically engineered.

D) None of the above

61.Nitrogen fixation is a process that ________.

A) recycles nitrogen compounds from dead and decaying materials

B) converts ammonia to ammonium

C) releases nitrate from the rock substrate

D) converts nitrogen gas into ammonia

E) recycles nitrogen compounds from dead and decaying materials and converts ammonia to ammonium

62.Which of the following, if used as a fertilizer, would be most immediately available for plant uptake?

A) NH3

B) N2

C) CN2H2

D) NO3-

63. In what way do nitrogen compounds differ from other minerals needed by plants? Only nitrogen ________.

A) can be lost from the soil

B) can be provided by symbiotic bacteria

C) is needed for protein synthesis

D) is held by cation exchange capacity in the soil

E) can be absorbed by root hairs

64. What is the correct sequence of steps during infection of plants by nitrogen-fixing bacteria?

A) Rhizobia release Nod factors; roots release flavonoids; rhizobia proliferate inside of root hair; infection thread grows into the root cortex; nodule forms.

B) Rhizobia release flavonoids; roots release Nod factors; rhizobia proliferate inside of root hair; infection thread grows into the root cortex; nodule forms.

C) Roots release flavonoids; rhizobia release Nod factors; rhizobia proliferate inside of root hair; nodule forms; infection thread grows into the root cortex.

D) Roots release flavonoids; rhizobia release Nod factors; rhizobia proliferate inside of root hair; infection thread grows into the root cortex; nodule forms.

E) Nodule forms; infection thread grows into the root cortex; rhizobia proliferate inside of root hair; rhizobia release flavonoids and Nod factors.

65. Carnivorous plants have evolved mechanisms that trap and digest small animals. The products of this digestion are used to supplement the plant’s supply of ________.

A) water

B) carbohydrates

C) lipids and steroids

D) nitrogen, nutrient, and other minerals

66. Which of the following statements about nitrogen fixation in root nodules is correct?

A) The plant contributes the nitrogenase enzyme.

B) The process is relatively inexpensive in terms of ATP costs.

C) Leghemoglobin helps maintain a low oxygen concentration within the nodule.

D) The process tends to deplete nitrogen compounds in the soil.

E) The bacteria of the nodule are autotrophic.

67. Most of the dry mass of a plant is derived from ________.

A) NO3- and CO2

B) K+ and CO2

C) PO4 and K+

D) H2O and K+

E) H2O and CO2

 
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Figure ___. Membrane transport characteristics of Xenopus laevis oocytes transformed with clone#3992. mRNA encoding orf3992 was transcribed in vitro from plasmid pEP(clone#3992) and transformed into Xenopus laevis oocytes. (A) Sugar transport into oocytes in the presence and absence of 10 µM carbonyl cyanide m-chlorophenyl hydrazone (CCCP). Extracellular medium supplemented with 1 mM sugar was left with oocytes for 1 hour and then intracellular concentration of sugar was measured. (B) Measurement of beemolulose transport kinetics into oocytes in the presence of different sugars.

 

 

 

Figure ____. Modifications to orf3992 within A. candicus. (A) Schematic showing CRISPR/Cas9 with guide RNA (gRNA) that targets orf3992 co-transformed into A. candicus. (B) Effect of CRISPR/Cas9 disruption of orf3992 gene on A. candicus growth characteristics. Sugars were added to minimal growth medium and A. candicus was grown for 12 hours in minimal medium plus sugar. (C) Schematic showing transformation of expression plasmid encoding orf3992 into A. candicus. (D) Effect of orf3992 overexpression on A. candicus growth in minimal medium plus sugars.

 

Figure ____. Screening Austral candicus cDNA library. (A) cDNA library preparation diagram. mRNA was extracted from A. candicus, converted to cDNA via reverse-transcription, followed by cloning into an expression plasmid with promoter constitutively active within S. cerevisiae. Following transformation of plasmid library into S. cerevisiae, 109 clones were plated onto minimal medium with all amino acids added lacking any sugar but beemolulose. Resulting colonies were picked and grown in 96-well liquid format with the same medium as used for plating colonies. Clone #3992 was one of 20 colonies that showed growth in the 96-well plate, had the most robust growth, and was chosen for further study. (B) Growth of yeast strains on different sugars. Growth was in liquid minimal medium supplemented with sugar(s) indicated. In the right panel, equimolar combinations of beemolulose plus indicated sugar were supplemented into minimal growth medium.

 

 

Figure ____. Identification and cellular localisation of ORF3992 protein. (A) Sequencing of clone #3992 reveals an open reading frame (ORF3992) of 700 amino acids long with hydropathy plotting potentially showing transmembrane domains. (B) Adding FLAG-tag to C-terminus of ORF3992 followed by transformation into yeast strain W303. (C) SDS-PAGE analysis of cytoplasm, membrane, and nucleus fractions from (-) yeast cells alone and (+) yeast cells carrying pEP(clone #3992). (D) Western blot of cytoplasm, membrane, and nucleus fractions from (-) yeast cells alone and (+) yeast cells carrying pEP(clone #3992). Probed with a rabbit anti-FLAG tag primary antibody, followed by anti-rabbit secondary antibody, and visualised with enhanced chemiluminescence (ECL) reagent.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

B. Sugar

0

1750

3500 Tr

an sp

or t R

at e

(p m

ol /m

in /o

oc yt

e)

A ra

bi no

se

X yl

os e

B ee

m ol

ul os

e

La ct

os e

F ru

ct os

e

R ha

m no

se

M an

no se

S uc

ro se

G lu

co se

CCCP (10 µM)

Control A.

Substrate 1 Substrate 2 Km (mM) Vmax (pmols/min/oocyte)

Beemolulose – 20 ± 1 3499 ± 380 Beemolulose Glucose 22 ± 2 3298 ± 350 Beemolulose Mannose 21 ± 1 3507 ± 373 Beemolulose Rhamnose 102 ± 5 3445 ± 401

Beemolulose Transport Characteristics

 

B.

Sugar

0

1750

3500

T

r

a

n

s

p

o

r

t

 

R

a

t

e

(

p

m

o

l

/

m

i

n

/

o

o

c

y

t

e

)

A

r

a

b

i

n

o

s

e

X

y

l

o

s

e

B

e

e

m

o

l

u

l

o

s

e

L

a

c

t

o

s

e

F

r

u

c

t

o

s

e

R

h

a

m

n

o

s

e

M

a

n

n

o

s

e

S

u

c

r

o

s

e

G

l

u

c

o

s

e

CCCP (10 µM)

Control

A.

Substrate 1Substrate 2Km (mM)Vmax (pmols/min/oocyte)

Beemolulose- 20 ± 1 3499 ± 380

BeemoluloseGlucose22 ± 2 3298 ± 350

BeemoluloseMannose 21 ± 13507 ± 373

BeemoluloseRhamnose102 ± 5 3445 ± 401

Beemolulose Transport Characteristics

 

A.

La ct

os e

R ha

m no

se

B ee

m ol

ul os

e

X yl

os e

M an

no se

F ru

ct os

e

S uc

ro se

G lu

co se

N on

e

Sugar added to minimal medium

0

Δorf3992 Wild-type

100

150

G ro

w th

(% )

C.

B.

pEP(clone #3992)

La ct

os e

R ha

m no

se

B ee

m ol

ul os

e

X yl

os e

M an

no se

F ru

ct os

e

S uc

ro se

G lu

co se

N on

e

Sugar added to minimal medium

0

pEP(clone#3992) Wild-type

100

200

G ro

w th

(% )

Cas9+ gRNA

orf3992

D.

 

A.

L

a

c

t

o

s

e

R

h

a

m

n

o

s

e

B

e

e

m

o

l

u

l

o

s

e

X

y

l

o

s

e

M

a

n

n

o

s

e

F

r

u

c

t

o

s

e

S

u

c

r

o

s

e

G

l

u

c

o

s

e

N

o

n

e

Sugar added to minimal medium

0

Δorf3992

Wild-type

100

150

G

r

o

w

t

h

 

(

%

)

C.

B.

pEP(clone #3992)

L

a

c

t

o

s

e

R

h

a

m

n

o

s

e

B

e

e

m

o

l

u

l

o

s

e

X

y

l

o

s

e

M

a

n

n

o

s

e

F

r

u

c

t

o

s

e

S

u

c

r

o

s

e

G

l

u

c

o

s

e

N

o

n

e

Sugar added to minimal medium

0

pEP(clone#3992)

Wild-type

100

200

G

r

o

w

t

h

 

(

%

)

Cas9+

gRNA

orf3992

D.

 

A ra

bi no

se

X yl

os e

La ct

os e

R ha

m no

se

A ra

bi no

se

X yl

os e

+ Beemolulose

B ee

m ol

ul os

e

La ct

os e

F ru

ct os

e

R ha

m no

se

M an

no se

M an

no se

S uc

ro se

S uc

ro se

G lu

co se

G lu

co se

109 independent clones

Minimal medium + beemolulose

B.

A.

Sugar(s) added to minimal medium

0

Yeast + pEP(clone #3992)

Yeast

50

100

G ro

w th

(% )

mRNA

Saccharomyces cerevisae

Austral candicus

Expression Plasmid (pEP)

cDNA

Yeast + pEP(clone #3992)

Yeast

 

A

r

a

b

i

n

o

s

e

X

y

l

o

s

e

L

a

c

t

o

s

e

R

h

a

m

n

o

s

e

A

r

a

b

i

n

o

s

e

X

y

l

o

s

e

+ Beemolulose

B

e

e

m

o

l

u

l

o

s

e

L

a

c

t

o

s

e

F

r

u

c

t

o

s

e

R

h

a

m

n

o

s

e

M

a

n

n

o

s

e

M

a

n

n

o

s

e

S

u

c

r

o

s

e

S

u

c

r

o

s

e

G

l

u

c

o

s

e

G

l

u

c

o

s

e

10

9

independent clones

Minimal medium

+ beemolulose

B.

A.

Sugar(s) added to minimal medium

0

Yeast + pEP(clone #3992)

Yeast

50

100

G

r

o

w

t

h

 

(

%

)

mRNA

Saccharomyces

cerevisae

Austral candicus

Expression

Plasmid

(pEP)

cDNA

Yeast + pEP(clone #3992)

Yeast

 

C.

220

KDa

100 120

80

50

60

40

20

30

MW M

ar ke

r

Cytoplasm Membrane Nucleus – + – + – + D.

220

KDa

100 120

80

50

60

40

20

30

MW M

ar ke

r

Cytoplasm Membrane Nucleus – + – + – +

Western Blot 1° antibody: anti-FLAG

SDS-PAGE

pEP(clone #3992)

B.

pEP(clone #3992)

FLAG-tag

W303(pEP(clone #3992))

A.

ORF3992 Position of Protein

H yd

ro pa

th y

+3

0

+2 +1

-1 -2 -3

1 508254

N- -C

 

C.

220

KDa

100

120

80

50

60

40

20

30

M

W

 

M

a

r

k

e

r

CytoplasmMembraneNucleus

+

+

+

D.

220

KDa

100

120

80

50

60

40

20

30

M

W

 

M

a

r

k

e

r

CytoplasmMembraneNucleus

+

+

+

Western Blot

1° antibody: anti-FLAG

SDS-PAGE

pEP(clone #3992)

B.

pEP(clone #3992)

FLAG-tag

W303(pEP(clone #3992))

A.

ORF3992

Position of Protein

H

y

d

r

o

p

a

t

h

y

+3

0

+2

+1

-1

-2

-3

1

508

254

N- -C

 
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