International Business Homework

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About 200 words for each；

1.  You work for Nike and want to enter some markets in Africa.  But you have to decide which ones to enter as you don’t have the resources to enter all of them.

To help you decide, one of the steps is to pick five criteria which will help you gauge potential demand.  These criteria should be specific and not general.  For example, if you were an office supply supplier you would perhaps use number of companies, total office worker employment and office worker growth and not general criteria like gdp or unemployment rate.

With Nike, think sports!

2. You are Land Rover, manufacturer of luxury SUVs, and want to enter two countries – a large wealthy one like Germany and a small one like Cyprus.  For each country, what form (joint venture, direct ownership, etc) would you use and why?  Give at least three reasons why and also at least two cons for this method.

 

 
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Strayer BUS309 – Week 10 Quiz

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Question 1

Which of the following are examples of quid-pro-quo harassment?

a) Sexual offers

b) Sexual threats

c) Neither A nor B

d) Both A and B

Question 2

Which of the following Supreme Court cases determined that gender may be used as a positive factor when making promotions among qualified candidates for jobs in which women are underrepresented?

a) Johnson v. Transportation Agency

b) Novartis Case

c) Americans With Disabilities Act

d) Civil Rights Act

Question 3

Which of the following is true of affirmative action programs?

a) Affirmative action programs make use of quotas to make sure women and minorities are represented in the workplace.

b) Affirmative action programs presume that race or gender-conscious measures are necessary to overcome discriminatory practices.

c) Affirmative action programs face no major criticisms.

d) None of the above

Question 4

Of these four arguments, which of the following is the most plausible argument FOR affirmative action?

a) It evens the score with young white men, who have had it good for too long.

b) It is necessary to break the cycle that keeps minorities and women locked into low-paying, low-prestige jobs.

c) It ignores the principle of equality.

d) It is a color-blind policy.

Question 5

Which of the following Supreme Court cases determined that it is illegal to discriminate based on race, color, sex, religion, or national origin?

a) Johnson v. Transportation Agency

b) Novartis Case

c) Americans With Disabilities Act

d) Civil Rights Act

Question 6

Of these four arguments, which of the following is the most plausible argument AGAINST affirmative action?

a) Compensatory justice forbids affirmative action.

b) Blacks and whites are already equal in socioeconomic terms.

c) Affirmative action violates the rights of white men to equal treatment.

d) Affirmative action is the same thing as fixed numerical quotas.

Question 7

Companies committed to affirmative action typically do all of the following EXCEPT:

a) Develop a timetable for increased diversity.

b) Set quotas.

c) Alter managerial attitudes.

d) Set goals for increased diversity.

Question 8

Advocates of “comparable worth”:

a) Say that all women do their job just as well as men.

b) Base their doctrine on the free-market determination of wages.

c) Believe it is necessary for getting rid of sexual harassment.

d) Want women to be paid as much as men for jobs involving equivalent skill, effort, and responsibility.

Question 9

Evidence suggests organizations that embrace affirmative action programs are:

a) More productive

b) More profitable

c) More efficient

d) All of the above

Question 10

Which of the following Supreme Court cases determined that it is illegal to discriminate based on disability status?

a) Johnson v. Transportation Agency

b) Novartis Case

c) Americans With Disabilities Act

d) Civil Rights Act

Question 11

What quality is more important in predicting who gets fired than job-performance ratings or even prior disciplinary history?

a) Race

b) Sexual orientation

c) Age

d) Gender

Question 12

How do the courts determine what is objectionable or offensive when considering sexual harassment cases?

a) By considering what the employee found objectionable or offensive.

b) By considering what the offender intended in that situation.

c) By considering what a reasonable person would find offensive in that situation.

d) What is objectionable and offensive is very clearly defined in the law.

Question 13

Which of the following is an argument against affirmative action programs?

a) Compensatory justice demands affirmative action programs.

b) Affirmative action is necessary for fair competition.

c) Affirmative action is necessary to break the cycle that keeps minorities and women locked into low-paying, low-prestige jobs.

d) Affirmative action itself violates the principle of equality.

Question 14

Programs that aim to increase the representation of women and minorities in areas of unemployment where they are underrepresented are called:

a) Discriminatory programs

b) Affirmative action programs

c) Pink-collar programs

d) None of the above

Question 15

An office where lewd comments, jokes, and images make some individuals feel uncomfortable and unable to do their work has a problem with:

a) Quid-pro-quo harassment

b) Sexual favoritism

c) Hostile-work-environment harassment

 

d) None of the above

 
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What is the investment grade of your Company’s bonds?

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Does your company purchase the bonds of other companies as an investment?

 

What is the investment grade of your Company’s bonds?

 

Within their Notes to the Financial Statements can you identify any discussions on financial risk?

 

If your Company has issued Bonds look at terms and identify the interest rates they are paying.

 

Find a competitor to your company and look at their debt as well. Maybe compare the 2 through a Debt/Equity ratio. Who is managing their debt structure better?

 

 

Here is a sample below

 

 

 

 

                         
Name Amount    Price Coupon % Current Yield % Adjusted Current Yield Fixed Or Floating Callable ? YTM Par Val. Coup Freq. Issued Maturity Date
Nike 2.25%  500M 98 2.25 2.30 2.56 Fixed No 253 1000 Semi- Annual 4/26/2013 2023
Nike 3.625%   500M 92.54 3.625 3.92 4.19 Fixed No 4.07 1000 Semi- Annual 4/27/2013 2043
                         
Nike Bond Rating is AA- by Morningstar, A+ by S&P, A1 by Moddy’s            
Nike Debt/Assets 5.82%                    
                     

Nike bonds should be considered low risk.   First the credit rating services each have

Nike’s credit rate between very good, and high quality.  Specifically, Moody’s says

“NIKE’s A1 senior unsecured rating reflects the company’s significant scale in the global athletic industry with revenues in excess of $25 billion, the ownership of the “NIKE” brand whose distinctive ‘swoosh’ logo is one of the most recognized consumer brands in the world, and the company’s solid track record of demonstrating revenue, earnings and cash flow growth for an extended period of time. The rating also reflects the company’s strong credit metrics, very good liquidity profile, and its maintenance of balanced financial policies which we expect will continue. The rating is constrained by the inherent cyclicality and changing consumer preferences in the global footwear and apparel industries.” (Moody’s .com).

 

Nike bond prices are currently at a discounted price.  This is evidenced by the price for each being less than par value, and that the current yield, and adjusted current yields are both higher than the coupon rate.  This indicates that interest rates have increased since these bonds were issued in April of 2013 (Brigham & Ehrhardt, 2014).  The coupons on these Nike bonds are paid semiannually.  The Nike 3.625% bond it is benchmarked to the 20-year treasury for the bond maturing in 2043, and a ten-year treasury for the 2.25% bond maturing in 2023.   An interesting feature of these bonds is that they are not callable.  While having a callable option would seem like useful tool for a bond issuer to have in case the cost of capital decreased (interest rates went down).  The problem when these bonds were issued could have been a competitive bond market where a non-callable feature was required to adequately market the securities as close to Par value as possible.

Looking at how the Nike bond is valued, the largest risk is an increase in interest rates.  Currently the bond is trading at a discount and the interest rates are better than the coupon rates.  If interest rates increased by just two percent, the bond would be even further discounted and provide almost half the return of other alternatives.  The risk being that should interest rise even 2%, the owners of these bonds would be getting paid much less than a similar risk should be paying.  If interest rates increased by 2%, Nike bonds would look like this:

Name Amount Price Coupon % Current Yield % Adjusted Current Yield
Nike 2.25% 500M 87.27 2.25 2.58 4.28
Nike 3.625% 500M 72.18 3.625 5.02 6.03

Notice the current and adjusted current yields have increased, conversely if interest rates went down 2%, Nike’s bond would look like this:

Name Amount Price Coupon % Current Yield % Adjusted Current Yield
Nike 2.25% 500M 114.9 2.25 1.96 1.97
Nike 3.625% 500M 142.2 3.625 2.55 2.57

 

While it does not seem realistic that interest rate will fall by 2%, it is interesting to see what a 4% spread will do to the cost of the Nike Bonds.

 

Looking at Nike bonds from the perspective of an investing I might say Nike’s credit is fantastic, their management structure is stable, and there are favorable terms for owners of these bonds (not callable).  At the same time the coupon rate is not floating, in other words it will not benchmarked to another indicator of prevailing interest rates (Brigham & Ehrhardt, 2014). This leads to the primary risk of a bond prices decreasing for similar bonds.  This concern however should be mitigated with interest rates being at historic lows.  I would hover be concern about a rise in interest rates as well.  While my yields would increase relative to a current price, my yield would only relate to the price I purchased the bond at.  For example, if I buy the 2.25% Nike bond today discounted to 92 today I will get an adjusted yield of about 2.56%.  If interest rates go up and the bond becomes worth 87.27 and the adjusted yield increased to 4.28%, my yield is still 2.56% because of where my investment was at.

 

 

References

Moody’s.com (2015).  Nike Credit Rating.  Retrieved October 19, 2015 from:https://www.moodys.com/research/Moody’s+assigns+A1+rating+to+NIKE’s+proposed+bond+issue–PR_271309

 

Bond Value Calculator for Interest Rate Effects on Bond Was From: http://www.free-online-calculator-use.com/bond-value-calculator.html

 

Brigham, E., Ehrhart, M., (2014).  Financial Management.  South – Western Cengage Leaning. Mason, Oh. (14th Ed.).

 

JWMI 531, (2015). Howe Professional Investors Value Bonds. Week 3, Lesson 1.

Morningstar.com (2015).  Nike Analysis.  Retrieved Various Dates From:http://www.morningstar.com/stocks/XNYS/NKE/quote.html

 
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SAINT LEO COM540 MODULE 8 FINAL EXAM

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The ____ section of the business continuity policy provides an overview of the information storage and retrieval plans of the organization.

scope

training requirements

roles and responsibilities

special considerations

Question 2. Question :

A ____ is a fully configured computer facility, with all services, communications links, and physical plant operations.

cold site

service bureau

warm site

hot site

Question 3. Question :

A ____ agreement usually guarantees space when needed, even if this means that the service bureau has to acquire additional space in the event of a widespread disaster.

mutual

noncompete

service

nondisclosure

Question 4. Question :

The ____ team is responsible for providing any needed supplies, space, materials, food, services, or facilities needed at the primary site other than vendor-acquired technology and other material obtained by the vendor team.

damage assessment

data management

logistics

business interface

Question 5. Question :

The ____ team works to install operating systems on the hardware installed by the hardware team.

application recovery

OS

computer setup team

network recovery team

Question 6. Question :

The ____ team is responsible for recovering and reestablishing operating systems (OSs).

database recovery

systems recovery

applications recovery

vendor recovery

Question 7. Question :

____ is functionally similar to job rotation, but only involves the rotation of a portion of a job, rather than the entire position.

Vertical job rotation

Task rotation

Computer training

Horizontal job rotation

Question 8. Question :

The ____ team is responsible for recovering and reestablishing operations of critical business applications.

vendor contact

system recovery

applications recovery

network recovery

Question 9. Question :

The ____ method of backup uses a rotation of six sets of media and is perhaps the most simple and well known.

six tape rotation

six-day rotation

Tower of Hanoi

six night rotation

Question 10. Question :

The ____ method of backup uses five media sets per week and allows recovery of data for the previous three weeks.

Towers of Hanoi

six-tape rotation

Grandfather-Father-Son

six-day rotation

Question 11. Question :

In disaster recovery, the ____ is the point at which a management decision to react is made in reaction to a notice or other data such as a weather report or an activity report from IT indicating the escalation of an incident.

mirrored site

hot site

cold site

trigger

Question 12. Question :

____ is the movement of employees from one position to another so they can develop additional skills and abilities.

Job rotation

Task rotation

Computer training

Cross-training

Question 13. Question :

The ____ team works to quickly set up the hardware needed to establish operations in the alternate site.

business continuity management team

operations team

computer setup team

network recovery team

Question 14. Question :

____ uses a specialized parity coding mechanism known as the Hamming code to store stripes of data on multiple data drives and corresponding redundant error correction on separate error correcting drives.

RAID level 1

RAID level 2

RAID level 3

RAID level 4

Question 15. Question :

____ is the group charged with analyzing vulnerabilities, evaluating existing plans, and developing and implementing the comprehensive crisis management program.

Crisis management planning committee

Humanitarian planning committee

Emergency response committee

Cross-training planning committee

Question 16. Question :

The ____ lists and describes the efforts to resume normal operations at the primary places of business.

incremental backup plan

disaster recovery plan

full-backup plan

business continuity plan

Question 17. Question :

The ____ contains the steps for implementing critical business functions using alternate mechanisms until normal operations can be resumed at the primary site or elsewhere on a permanent basis.

incremental plan

disaster recovery plan

full-backup plan

business continuity plan

Question 18. Question :

A ____ allows the organization to provide a disaster recovery/business continuity option while reducing the overall cost.

service bureau

mutual agreement

time-share

service agreement

Question 19. Question :

____ are highly probable when infected machines are brought back online or when other in-fected computers that may have been offline at the time of the attack are brought back up.

Follow-on incidents

War games

Black bag operations

Blue bag operations

Question 20. Question :

Before returning to routine duties, the IR team must also conduct a(n) ____.

chain of custody

after-action review

war game

Alarm Compaction

Question 21. Question :

The ____ is the point in the past to which the recovered applications and data at the alternate infrastructure will be restored.

recovery point objective

relocation point objective

simulation point objective

warm site objective

Question 22. Question :

____ consists of efforts designed to address the psychological and emotional impact on the workforce.

Crisis communications

Humanitarian assistance

Emergency response

Cross-training

Question 23. Question :

Once the incident has been contained, and all signs of the incident removed, the ____ phase begins.

actions after

black bag operation

chain of custody

blue bag operation

Question 24. Question :

____ occur over time and slowly deteriorate the capacity of an organization to withstand their effects.

Slow onset disasters

Communication disasters

Rapid onset disasters

Data disasters

Question 25. Question :

The ____ involves providing copies of the DR plan to all teams and team members for review.

DR plan desk check

DR plan structured walk-through

DR plan simulation

DR plan parallel testing

Question 26. Question :

A ____ is owned by a single organization; it can be as small as two PCs attached to a single hub or it may support hundreds of users and multiple servers.

honeypot

cache

filter

LAN

Question 27. Question :

____ contingency considerations should enhance the ability of recovery personnel to restore WAN services after a disruption.

Cache

Server

Web site

WAN

Question 28. Question :

The ____ team works with the hardware and OS teams to get internal and external services up and running to begin supporting business functions.

applications recovery

OS

computer setup team

network recovery team

Question 29. Question :

During the ____ phase the organization begins the recovery of the most time-critical business functions – those necessary to reestablish business operations and prevent further economic and image loss to the organization.

recovery

risk analysis

parallel testing

audit review

Question 30. Question :

____ are those that occur suddenly, with little warning, taking the lives of people and destroying the means of production.

Slow onset disasters

Communication disasters

Rapid onset disasters

Data disasters

Question 31. Question :

The ____ is the group responsible for initiating the occupation of the alternate facility.

advance party

disaster recovery team

applications development team

forensic team

Question 32. Question :

In the ____ section of the business continuity policy, the training requirements for the various employee groups are defined and highlighted.

scope

training requirements

roles and responsibilities

special considerations

Question 33. Question :

The ____ team is responsible for working with the remainder of the organization to assist in the recovery of nontechnology functions.

damage assessment

data management

logistics

business interface

Question 34. Question :

A ____ is defined by the ICM as a disruption in the company’s business that occurs without warning and is likely to generate news coverage and may adversely impact employees, investors, customers, suppliers, and other stakeholders.

humanitarian crisis

sudden crisis

business crisis

smoldering crisis

Question 35. Question :

____ is the rapid relocation of an organization’s critical business functions to another location.

Business relocation

Business continuity

Incidence response

Reactive review

Question 36. Question :

The ____ system can be used both to distribute information about the disaster and to collect information about the status of the employees.

DR plan desk system

DR plan simulation

auxiliary phone alert and reporting system

damage assessment report

Question 37. Question :

____ is most commonly used in organizations that balance safety and redundancy against the costs of acquiring and operating the systems.

RAID level 4

RAID level 5

RAID level 6

RAID level 7

Question 38. Question :

A(n) ____ is a list of officials ranging from an individual’s immediate supervisor through the top executive of the organization.

emergency report

chain of command

cross-training

crisis report

Question 39. Question :

____ is the storage of duplicate online transaction data, along with the duplication of the databases at the remote site to a redundant server.

Remote journaling

Electronic vaulting

Hot swapping

Database shadowing

Question 40. Question :

____ involves the batch transfer of data to an offsite facility.

Database shadowing

Remote journaling

Six-tape rotation

Electronic vaulting

 

 

 
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