Go Venture Ceo

GoVenture Simulation Debrief In addition to the draft strategic plan, you are required to submit a 10-page maximum paper discussing their strategic plan. It must contain, at a minimum, the following topic areas:  Discuss the original strategy, the plan and original financial targets  Identify issues related to the original strategy and underlying assumptions o Stakeholders o Key Assumptions o Strategy with Potential / Desired Outcomes  What occurred in subsequent decision rounds – did you have to modify your approach or assumptions and why/why not?  Financial Debriefing – did you achieve your financial goals and why/why not?

GBA 498 GoVenture CEO Simulation Guidelines and Rubric During the course of the semester, you will be participating in an on-line PC-based exercise in head-to-head competition against their classmates and computer-based participants. Access to the simulation can be attained by going to www.goventureceo.com and following the student registration. However, before registering you will need a company ID that is provided by your instructor. Your instructor will notify you of which group you are a member of, along with the simulation number required to participate. There are three components of this project:

1. Weekly decision rounds 2. Draft of 3-Year Strategic Plan (This Dropbox basket is linked to Turnitin.) 3. GoVenture Simulation Debrief (This Dropbox basket is linked to Turnitin.)

Decision Rounds Practice Simulation – Decision Rounds

• All companies start out on the same footing – with equal resources • Each decision round represents a year • You can advance each year manually

Full Simulation – Decision Rounds

• All companies start out on the same footing— with equal resources • Each decision period in represents a year. Periods will be advanced by the instructor. • You will make variety of decisions each period relating to product pricing, R&D, sales

and marketing, and targeting different consumer profiles and market territories. • In addition, there is accounting and cost data to examine. • The overall goal of the your company is to achieve net profitability, a comprehensive

measure that accounts for a combination of profitability and the different ways in which you can raise capital.

• Your cumulative rank score is calculated based on the company’s achievement of each of the ten performance targets are as follows (more detail on the calculations is contained in GoVentureCEO):

• Rank • Achievements achieved compared to other businesses • Trends – percentage of periods where your performance score stayed the same

or increased • Profit – total profit earned compared to other businesses • Revenue – total revenue earned compared to other businesses • Product competitiveness – combination of price, brand, and R&D scores • Inventory Management – percent of missed unit sales compared to units sold • Marketing – total brand equity scored • Advertising – advertising effectiveness score • HR Management – HR Score • Cumulative rank score (out of 100)

• The total score is composed of an average of your cumulative rank score, scaled market share, scaled price competitiveness, scaled advertising effectiveness, scaled web site usability, and scaled revenues. Note the raw scores in each of these areas is scaled based on your performance relative to the other groups in the simulation.

 

 

 

Draft 3-Year Strategic Plan After year 3 in the simulation, you are required to submit a three-year strategic plan that will cover the remaining three years (years 4, 5, and 6). Preparation of a 3-Year Strategic Plan involves:

1. Stating a strategic vision for the company in a brief paragraph. What is it that you are striving for? Think of this as your team’s vision statement – what are your broad goals for the next three years?

2. An introductory paragraph that discusses where your team is in the simulation – what have you done up until now, what has been driving your decisions, what is your performance like? Just provide an idea of your current status in the simulation.

3. Based on (2) above, discuss your current strategy and note whether your current strategy is either on track or will require substantial internal changes;

4. Declare what strategy the company will employ, why you chose the strategy, and how you will deploy it. This will be based on your current status in the simulation and you will choose a strategy based on improving your status. This is not an action, but a specific strategy (e.g. market development, product development, market penetration, etc.); and

5. Establishing financial objectives for total revenue, profits, cash flow, and stock price appreciation for each of the next three years. You should also have a projected income statement that lays out expected unit sales, revenues, costs, and profits for each of the three geographic regions for the each of the next three years. When you create your financial projections, be sure that you state your assumptions as well.

GoVenture Simulation Debrief In addition to the draft strategic plan, you are required to submit a 10-page maximum paper discussing their strategic plan. It must contain, at a minimum, the following topic areas:

ï‚· Discuss the original strategy, the plan and original financial targets

ï‚· Identify issues related to the original strategy and underlying assumptions o Stakeholders o Key Assumptions o Strategy with Potential / Desired Outcomes

 What occurred in subsequent decision rounds – did you have to modify your approach or assumptions and why/why not?

 Financial Debriefing – did you achieve your financial goals and why/why not? Deliverables All deliverables are due no later than Sunday 11:59 PM EST/EDT of each module.

Module GoVenture Simulation

1 2 Practice Rounds + 1 Decision Round

2 Decision Round 2

3 Decision Round 3

4 Decision Round 4 Draft of 3-Year Strategic Plan

5 Decision Round 5

6 Decision Round 6

8 GoVenture Simulation Debrief

 

 

GoVenture CEO Simulation Debrief Grading Rubric

Content

Points Earned

Comments:

Original Plan Discussed: ï‚· Original Strategy ï‚· Original Financial Targets

/ 25

 

Original Strategy Discussion: ï‚· Identify issues related to

strategy ï‚· Evaluates assumptions ï‚· Recognizes stakeholders and

relationships to the strategy ï‚· Frames a concrete strategy

and acknowledges potential outcomes

/ 25

Strategy Debriefing: ï‚· What occurred in subsequent

decision rounds ï‚· Did strategy have to be

modified

/ 25

Financial Debriefing: ï‚· How did you perform vs goals?

/ 25

Total / 100

 

 

Grading Rubric Limited Proficiency Some Proficiency Proficiency High Proficiency

Level 4 Level 3 Level 2 Level 1

Grading Rubric for Strategic Plan Component Within GoVentureCEO

Identifies & Explains Issues Related to Company’s Strategic Plan

Fails to identify or explain main issues or topics relevant to the company’s strategy. Presents the issues or topics inaccurately or inappropriately.

Identifies main issues or topics relevant to the company’s strategy, but does not explain them clearly or sufficiently.

Successfully identifies and summarizes main issues and topics relevant to the company’s strategy, and weakly explains how to deal with these issues or topics.

Clearly identifies and summarizes main issues and explains how to deal with them by addressing the company’s strategy.

Evaluation of Facts and Information Used in Developing Strategy

Fails to identify facts and information that counts as evidence used in developing strategy and fails to evaluate its credibility.

Successfully identifies some facts and information that counts as evidence used in developing strategy but fails to thoroughly evaluate its credibility.

Identifies the majority of important facts and information used as evidence in developing strategy and rigorously evaluates it.

Identifies all facts and information used as evidence in developing strategy and provides additional data or information for consideration.

Recognizes Stakeholders and their Relationships to Strategy (including all employees, political, shareholders, community, vendors, environment, and ethical)

Fails to accurately identify any relevant stakeholders and their contexts to the issues. Presents problems as having no connections to stakeholders.

Shows some general understanding of the stakeholders and their contexts to the issues but does not identify any specific ones relevant to situation at hand.

Correctly identifies all the stakeholders and their contexts to the situation but only addressed a limited few.

Correctly identifies all the stakeholders and their contexts to the situation and also identifies minor stakeholders and their contexts to the company’s strategy.

Frames a Concrete Corporate Strategy and Acknowledges Possible Outcomes

Fails to formulate and clearly express corporate strategy and/or fails to anticipate possible outcomes.

Formulates a vague and indecisive corporate strategy and/or vaguely describes possible outcomes.

Formulates a clear and precise corporate strategy, but addresses the company’s strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats only lightly.

Not only formulates a clear and precise corporate strategy, but also addresses the company’s strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats in detail.

 

 

Adequately Discusses Strategic Outcomes and Deviations From Plan

Fails to identify and evaluate any of the important issues and/or outcomes in subsequent decision rounds and their effects on the company’s strategy and resulting deviations from the initial plan.

Identifies some of the most important issues and/or outcomes in subsequent decision rounds and their effects on the company’s strategy and resulting deviations from the initial plan.

Identifies and evaluates the majority of important issues and/or outcomes in subsequent decision rounds and their effects on the company’s strategy and resulting deviations from the initial plan.

Identifies and evaluates the all important issues and/or outcomes in subsequent decision rounds and their effects on the company’s strategy and any resulting deviations from the initial plan.

Adequately Discusses Initial Financial Targets and Performance Relative to Plan

Fails to discuss any of the financial targets along with justification and assumptions. Fails to address any of the issues related to deviation of performance vs. goals.

Discusses most of the financial targets along with justification and assumptions. Identifies most of the issues related to deviation of performance vs. goals.

Discusses the majority of financial targets along with justification and assumptions. Identifies the majority of issues related to deviation of performance vs. goals.

Discusses all financial targets along with justification and assumptions. Identifies all issues related to deviation of performance vs. goals.

Level 4 Level 3 Level 2 Level 1

0 – 69 70 – 79 80 – 89 90 – 100

Points Given – 100 Point Scale

 

 

 

 

 

 

Grading Rubric for Student Performance in GoVentureCEO

Grading Rubric Limited Proficiency Some Proficiency Proficiency High Proficiency

Level 4 Level 3 Level 2 Level 1

Time Spent Online Working With GoVenture CEO Simulation

Less than 1 hour per week Between 1 – 1.5 hours per week

Between 1.5 – 2.5 hours per week

More than 2.5 hours per week

Student Discussion Question Posts (Optional)

Fails to identify or explain main issues or topics relevant to the discussion question. Presents the issues or topics inaccurately or inappropriately.

Identifies main issues or topics relevant to the discussion question but does not explain them clearly or sufficiently.

Successfully identifies and summarizes most of the main issues and topics relevant to the discussion question.

Clearly identifies and summarizes all the main issues and explains how to deal with them within the context of the discussion question.

Cumulative Results – Scaled Revenue

Score 0 – 49 Score 50 – 64 Score 65 – 79 Score 80 – 100

Cumulative Results – Scaled Market Share

Score 0 – 49 Score 50 – 64 Score 65 – 79 Score 80 – 100

Cumulative Results – Scaled Price Competitiveness

Score 0 – 49 Score 50 – 64 Score 65 – 79 Score 80 – 100

Cumulative Results – Scaled Advertising Effectiveness

Score 0 – 49 Score 50 – 64 Score 65 – 79 Score 80 – 100

Cumulative Results – Scaled Web Site Usability

Score 0 – 49 Score 50 – 64 Score 65 – 79 Score 80 – 100

Cumulative Results – Scaled Cumulative Rank

Score 0 – 49 Score 50 – 64 Score 65 – 79 Score 80 – 100

Level 4 Level 3 Level 2 Level 1

Points Given – 100 Point Scale

0 – 69 70 – 79 80 – 89 90 – 100

Score

 

 

Sample Spreadsheet for Calculating Scaled Grades in GoVenture CEO

 

 

Cumulative Rank Mkt Shr Competitiveness Site Usability $Million

Group Score Scaled % Scaled Price Scaled Score Scaled Adv. Effect. Rev Scaled Total Score

One 66 93% 8% 100% 30% 60% 94% 100% 100% 24.626 100% 92%

Two 58 82% 4% 50% 50% 100% 80% 85% 100% 13.010 53% 78%

Three 71 100% 7% 88% 30% 60% 94% 100% 100% 23.801 97% 91%

Four 55 77% 1% 13% 9% 18% 88% 94% 100% 10.593 43% 57%

Five 49 69% 0% 0% 0% 0% 72% 72% 100% 3.134 13% 42%

Cumulative Rank: One Two Three Four Five

Rank 2 1 1 1 1

Achievements 5 8 4 2 1

Trends 9 9 9 9 9

Profit 1 1 1 1 1

Revenue 8 10 7 6 2

Product Competitiveness 6 6 5 4 3

Inventory Managment 10 10 10 10 10

Marketing (Brand Equity) 5 6 1 2 2

Advertising 10 10 10 10 10

HR Management 10 10 10 10 10

Total Points 66 71 58 55 49

Percentile Score 93% 100% 82% 77% 69%

Note Percenitle Scores are Calculated As A Percentage of the Highest Group’s Score. All Raw Scores Come from Within GoVenture CEO Reports

 
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MKT 571 / Marketing Communication And Brand Strategy

Assignment Steps

Develop a minimum 700-word branding strategy and marketing communication plan in Microsoft® Word. This document should address at least 5 elements of the Situational Analysis and the Product, Place/Distribution, Promotion, and Price Strategies (modified below) sections of the marketing plan (from the Situational Analysis and the Product, Place/Distribution, Promotion, and Price Strategies lists below). The five elements you select should only come from the options provided below. You must include a measurement of customer loyalty and retention in your strategy document. You may include more than the minimum to provide clarity and coherence to your document.

· Situational Analysis:

· Vision , Mission, Strategic objectives, Values

· Strengths/Weaknesses

· Competitor’s Strengths/Weaknesses

· Market Segments

· Product, Place/Distribution, Promotion, and Price Strategies:

· Creating a Brand Image

· Maintaining Brand Image

· Branding Concerns

· Promotion/Integrated Marketing Communication

· Advertising Strategy/Objectives

· Push and Pull

· Media Strategy

· Advertising Execution

· Public Relations/Strategies

Note: Charts/graphs/tables do not count toward the word count.

The plan will be a continuation of your global or multi-regional business you chose in Week 1. This will be incorporated into your overall marketing plan for Week 6.

 

Grading Guide

 

Content

Met Partially Met Not Met Comments:
Student develops a branding strategy and marketing communication plan that addresses at least 5 elements of the Situational Analysis and the Product, Place/Distribution, Promotion, and Price Strategies (modified below) sections of the marketing plan. Choose 5 elements from the lists below:

Situational Analysis:

Vision , Mission, Strategic objectives, Values

Strengths/Weaknesses

Competitor’s Strengths/Weaknesses

Market Segments

Product, Place/Distribution, Promotion, and Price Strategies:

Creating a Brand Image

Maintaining Brand Image

Branding Concerns

Promotion/Integrated Marketing Communication

Advertising Strategy/Objectives

Push and Pull

Media Strategy

Advertising Execution

Public Relations/Strategies

       
Student must include a measurement of customer loyalty and retention in your strategy document.        
The branding strategy and marketing communication plan is a minimum of 700 words in length. Note: Charts/graphs/tables do not count toward the word count.        
 

 

 

  Total Available Total Earned  
    7 #/7  

 

 

 

Writing Guidelines Met Partially Met Not Met Comments:
The paper—including tables and graphs, headings, title page, and reference page—is consistent with APA formatting guidelines and meets course-level requirements.        
Intellectual property is recognized with in-text citations and a reference page.        
Paragraph and sentence transitions are present, logical, and maintain the flow throughout the paper.        
Sentences are complete, clear, and concise.        
Rules of grammar and usage are followed including spelling and punctuation.        
    Total Available Total Earned  
    3 #/3  

 

 

Week 5: Marketing Communication and Brand Strategy

 

· Brand strategy and the communication of the brand is essential to understanding the various phases of a product or service (viz a viz the life cycle). Brand recognition is based in the marketing communication efforts of the firm. When you hear or see the word Coke, you immediately know it is Coca Cola. When you see five interlocking rings of different colors you know that is the symbol for the Olympics. In Week 5, you will develop a brand and communication strategy for your product.

 
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BMAL 590 Week 5 MCQs (Academic Leveling Course)

Stakeholders are

A
individuals or groups that have interests, rights, or ownership in an organization and its activities
B
can benefit from a company’s successes such as a profitable year
C
harmed by a business’s product failures
D
interdependent with an organization
E
accurately described by all of the above

______ stakeholders are those whose concerns the organization must address in order to ensure its own survival.

A
Strategic
B
Primary
C
Direct
D
Organizational
E
Corporate

The stakeholders of the organization include all but

A
employees
B
society
C
local government
D
customers
E
owners and investors

Which of the following statements describing how owners and shareholders relate to the organization is true?

A
Companies with better HR practices have greater increases in market value.
B
An investor’s judgment about the value of a company’s intangible assets is based on such things as reputation rankings.
C
Most owners and shareholders invest their money in companies for financial reasons.
D
Intangibles such as how employees feel about their employer can be used by shareholders to predict financial performance.
E
All of the statements about how owners and shareholders relate to organization are true.

What are the primary concerns of customers in their roles as stakeholders?

A
Legal compliance of the company and how it meets its social responsibility.
B
Return on sales, return on assets, and return on investments.
C
Quality service and products, innovation, and low cost.
D
Concern about safety, health, and fair treatment.
E
Whether the company uses collaborative problem-solving.
In the eyes of average Americans, the best employers

A
maximize shareholder profits
B
maximize long-term shareholder interests.
C
make decisions based on economic needs of the organization
D
seek to have a positive impact on society
E
simply obey the letter of the law

How does an organization interact with its society stakeholders?

A
By obeying local laws and regulations.
B
By being committed to community relations.
C
Through employee volunteerism.
D
By acting socially responsible to protect the environment.
E
By doing all of the above.

Which of the following statements describing the stakeholder relationship between employees and their employers is true?

A
Many employers value a good quality of work life while on the job.
B
Corporate restructuring has had minimal effect on U.S. employees.
C
For most workers, whether the employer provides secure and affordable health insurance, paid sick leave, and assured pension and retirement benefits are more important than their pay.
D
The Equal Pay Act is unnecessary today because all employees are paid according to their performance, not their gender.
E
All of the above statements accurately describe the stakeholder relationship between employees and their employers.

Organizations offer their employees training and development programs to improve their skills, safe and healthy work environments, fair and equitable selection and promotion systems, and jobs designed to increase employee self-esteem in order to

A
create stronger commitment from its employees
B
increase employee satisfaction
C
increase employee empowerment
D
improve employee quality of work life
E
do all of the above.

A competitive advantage derived from human resources is sustainable for a company when

A
it uses a centralized tactical program of close supervision
B
its employees have some rare and specialized skill not easily copied
C
it has a newly created organizational culture
D
its product is intangible
E
its customers remember the product and not the salesperson

The most difficult company culture to copy would be one that

A
has evolved over time and actually suits the needs of the company
B
has evolved over the last twelve months
C
has been used successfully by other companies not in the industry
D
is based on a tactical pricing and promotion plan
E
supports a newly developed technically-oriented company
All of the people who currently contribute to doing the work of the organization, those who could potentially contribute in the future, and those who have contributed in the recent past are referred to as

A
employees
B
the HR triad
C
human resources
D
HR professionals
E
customers

The Human Resources Triad contains

A
top-level, middle-level, and lower-level managers
B
representatives from each primary stakeholder group
C
suppliers, customers, and resellers
D
line managers, human resource professionals, and employees
E
employees, staff managers, and line managers

Improving on-time delivery of results to satisfy customers and reinforce or expand informal networks to satisfy employees are common reasons for the expanding use of

A
assessment centers in selection
B
teams
C
employee stock ownership
D
synergy
E
globalization

Complexity is created by

A
rapidly evolving competition from around the world
B
constant innovations in products and services
C
changing organizational structure and strategies
D
political and economic dynamics
E
all of the above statements
Questions to be addressed during strategic HR recruitment and planning might include

A
How many new hires do we need in the near term and three to five years from now?
B
Are we prepared to pay top dollar, or would we look for people who will be attracted to our company despite the modest compensation we offer?
C
What is our plan for downsizing employees?
D
What competencies do we need from our employees?
E
All of these are valid questions.
Which of the following is not a cost of high turnover?

A
lost knowledge
B
excessive hours for remaining employees.
C
increased litigation
D
opportunities missed
E
more errors
Which of the following statements about recruitment activities is true?

A
Recruiting and hiring are interchangeable terms.
B
Effective recruitment attracts individuals to the organization.
C
Recruiting has little effect on employee retention.
D
Recruiting involves sorting and ranking job applicants.
E
Once hired, employees permanently disengage from the recruiting process.
In designing recruitment activities, the two central issues addressed are

A
cost and applicant fit within the organizational culture
B
cost and places to look for applicants
C
methods used to find applicants and cost
D
methods used to find applicants and sources to target
E
job analyses and places to look for job applicants
Job postings

A
can generate ill will if hiring decisions are made before the postings appear
B
can reduce employee turnover by communicating to employees that they don’t have to go elsewhere to find opportunities for advancement
C
are used to create an open recruitment process
D
usually provide complete job descriptions
E
are accurately described by all of the above
A(n) _________ is a database that contains information about the pool of current employees.

A
organizational job analyses
B
management information system
C
employee information system
D
talent inventory
E
competency ledger
Compared to external recruitment, internal recruiting

A
can reduce employee morale
B
is less costly
C
can diminish employees’ willingness to maximize their productivity
D
will prevent problems with inbreeding
E
is accurately described by all of the above
Which of the following statements about employee referrals as a job recruitment method is true?

A
The informal employee referral approach is a very low-cost recruitment method.
B
Compared with other internal recruiting methods, employee referrals result in the highest one-year survival rate.
C
The employee referral approach only benefits the employer and not the employee.
D
The employee referral process is a useful method of increasing diversity.
E
An organization that relies heavily on employee referral will have no difficulty in complying with equal opportunity goals.
Which of the following statements about employment agencies is true?

A
State employment agencies are supported by a special tax on wholesale products.
B
Private employment agencies only serve professional and managerial labor.
C
Employment agencies are a form of internal recruitment.
D
State employment agencies tend to be small organizations with very limited lists of potential employees.
E
The Social Security Act provides that most workers who have been laid off must register with the state employment agency in order to be eligible for unemployment benefits.
Which of the following organizations would be most likely to use contingent workers?

A
a manufacturer of disposable diapers
B
a Christmas tree farm
C
a restaurant supplier
D
a pet food manufacturer
E
an insurance agency
Which of the following statements about how job applicants view recruiting practices is true?

A
Job seekers’ perception of how well they fit a job is typically most affected by contacts with the recruiter.
B
Effective recruiters show interest in job applicants, and in return, applicants show more interest in the job.
C
Negative impressions about the job tend to be created primarily by the body language used by the recruiter.
D
High quality job seekers are not deterred by long application processes.
E
The job recruiter has little impact on how the job applicant perceives the recruiting process.
Jessica had applied for a job and now you have to tell her that she will not be hired. As a competent HR professional, you are sending her a letter. In the letter, you have

A
told her bluntly but honestly she does not have the skills for the position
B
sent a form letter of rejection
C
told her that your company needed to hire a minority candidate
D
included a statement about the size and quality of the applicant pool
E
told her to lower her career goals
Affirmative action programs (AAPs)

A
correct underutilization of qualified members of protected groups in an organization’s relevant labor market
B
have been in effect since the beginning of the twentieth century
C
are governed by state agencies
D
require that all private-sector companies who have more than five employees hire members from protected groups
E
specify the employee hiring and firing practices for all private-sector companies
Federal contractors are required to file affirmative action plans with the Office of Federal Compliance Program (OFCCP). These written plans must contain

A
the contractor’s mission statement
B
the contractor’s plan for diversity
C
a utilization analysis
D
job descriptions for every position in the organization
E
a talent inventory for every employee and job applicant who is a member of a protected group
Causes of voluntary employee turnover include

A
high compensation
B
high unemployment rates
C
lack of other opportunities
D
flexible scheduling
E
low pay
Which of the following statements about fairness is true?

A
In a capitalistic economic society, organizations are only concerned about fairness when dealing with consumers and competitors.
B
Fairness is seldom the result of proactive thinking.
C
Concerns about fairness are typically handled reactively.
D
Members of the labor force initiate and ultimately create federal and state laws.
E
Fairness in the workplace is a result of ethical principles, not legal institutions.
Line managers, HR professionals, and employees all have roles and responsibilities for ensuring fair treatment in the workplace. Which of the following do all three groups have in common?

A
Keep accurate and current records about employee performance
B
Be informed about laws and regulations protecting employees’ rights
C
Administer grievance/ complaint procedures
D
Set policy to take into account societal views
E
They have none of these in common. Employees do not take part in this.
In a recent downsizing, Maureen, an average performer, was informed via email not to report to work the following Monday as her job had been terminated. Maureen was aware that the downsizing was to occur and was informed of the process by which layoffs would occur, which she thought was fair. All other performers in her work group who were let go had also been rated “average.” Maureen

A
is probably feeling she has been treated equitably.
B
probably believes she has been denied procedural justice.
C
probably believes she has been denied distributive justice.
D
probably believes she has been denied interactional justice.
E
b, c, and d are all correct.
You perceive that you are being treated unfairly in the workplace. Which of the following actions will help you to resolve the issue in a manner best for you and your organization?

A
Ignore it and hope it corrects itself.
B
Have patience. The government will pass legislation soon to help you.
C
Call a lawyer and find grounds for a lawsuit.
D
Talk to your supervisor or other appropriate person in the organization about the issue first.
E
Quit and look for a job more to your liking.
Which of the following statements about the relationship between federal and state laws is true?

A
All companies, no matter how small, are covered under federal laws.
B
State laws often anticipate (precede) federal laws.
C
The only difference between state laws and federal laws is the jurisdiction of the agency that enforces them.
D
Federal and state laws are types of administrative law.
E
Federal laws never supersede state laws.
Executive orders are

A
created by federal agencies
B
dictated by the U.S. Constitution
C
the result of precedent-setting legal cases
D
issued by the president of the U.S.
E
state laws that act as precedent for federal laws
The _____ rule states that because employers are the managers, they have the right to terminate their employees whenever they choose.

A
termination-at-will
B
employee non-discrimination
C
equity treatment
D
employment-at-will
E
employer autonomy
Which of the following is NOT an acceptable reason to terminate an employee?

A
Incompetence in performance that does not respond to training or to accommodation
B
Gross or repeated insubordination
C
Civil rights violations such as engaging in harassment
D
Complaining or testifying about violations of equal pay or wage and hour laws
E
All are acceptable reasons
Grievance procedures

A
have become nearly universally used in unionized settings
B
are consistent with managers’ beliefs that employees have a right to fair treatment.
C
help lower legal costs associated with resolving employee-employer disputes in court
D
increase employee loyalty and commitment
E
are accurately described by all of the above
_____ is the most popular form of alternative dispute resolution (ADR).

A
Mediation
B
Administrative settlement
C
Executive order
D
Arbitration
E
Statutory governance
If a legal right has been violated and has resulted in injury, the defendant may be required to pay _____ monetary damages to the plaintiff.

A
distributive and procedural
B
compensatory and punitive
C
financial and professional
D
personal and professional
E
present and future
Respect for all employees is when employment decisions are made on the basis of ________ rather than _________.

A
race, merit
B
performance, merit
C
merit, demographic attributes
D
affirmative action, demographic attributes
E
demographic attributes, performance
Which of the following statements about the prevention of harassment is true?

A
Businesses should enforce a zero tolerance for harassment.
B
It is relatively easy to create sexual harassment policies that will eliminate harassment.
C
The EEOC wants businesses to establish a fund from which plaintiffs in harassment cases will be paid.
D
Harassment-awareness training programs have proven ineffective deterrents.
E
Policies defining penalties for engaging in activities that may involve harassing need to be narrow and specific in order to be really useful.
In order to make sure its sexual harassment policy provides effective guidelines for its managers, the company should write a policy that includes

A
jokes, slurs, and epithets that are examples of harassment
B
termination policies for the accused and the accuser
C
a requirement that those who have been harassed must report it to management
D
the reporting format that will be used in its monthly report to the EEOC
E
the scale for payment to those who have proven they were harassed
The Privacy Act of 1974

A
was the first major statute to address the issue of privacy directly
B
applies to employees in the private sector
C
gives employees control over who gets what information
D
is an administrative regulation developed and enforced by the EEOC
E
has been ruled as unconstitutional by the U.S. Supreme Court
Many organizations help their customers train their workforces because

A
it meets the special customer needs
B
it ensures capabilities of specialized products are fully utilized and recognized
C
it can be a source of extra revenue
D
it ensures customers get the full benefits of the company’s equipment
E
All of the above are reasons.
_____ has the major objective of teaching employees about the organization’s history, culture, and management practices.

A
Socialization
B
Training
C
Organizational instruction
D
Personnel indoctrination
E
Bridging
Employment commitment

A
cannot be created, but must be allowed to develop over time
B
can be created by intensive socialization and training
C
is never permanent
D
lasts only as long as the employee gets to perform in a way that is comfortable for him or her
E
is desirable but not achievable
What role do an organization’s employees play in training and development?

A
The effectiveness of training and development requires the support and cooperation of all employees in the system.
B
All employees are typically involved in designing training systems.
C
Employees should not view training and development activities as opportunities for socialization.
D
Research indicates that employees who have not selected a career path are more likely to participate in training and development opportunities.
E
Only top management should be actively involved in designing and developing training programs.
Research shows that a supportive training climate at an organization enhances transfer of training. Which of the following is an indicator of a supportive climate?

A
Training is held off site after hours
B
Employees compete for training opportunities
C
No overtime on training nights for the employees enrolled
D
The incentives are “If you don’t, it will look bad on your record”
E
Employees encourage each other to practice newly learned skills
A properly executed organizational needs analysis

A
results in a clear statement of training goals
B
includes an assessment of the organizational climate
C
identifies available resources and constraints
D
begins with an analysis of short and long term strategy
E
is accurately described by all of the above
A person needs analysis

A
is performed before a job-needs analysis
B
focuses on the generic job incumbent, not the current employee
C
identifies gaps between a person’s current capabilities and those identified as necessary for a particular job
D
is derived from job analysis and competency modeling
E
is accurately described by all of the above
Five components are necessary to ensure that you are setting up the proper conditions for effective training. Which of the following is NOT one of the five?

A
People need to know what it is they are to learn
B
People need to be motivated to put in the required effort
C
People must be shown how to acquire the needed competencies
D
All need to feel personally accountable for what they have learned
E
People need to become engaged in learning for learning’s own sake
During the recent workshop Martin attended, he practiced learning how to talk to his co-workers, how to listen to what they are saying, and how to read their nonverbal communication. This workshop was designed to produce

A
an affective outcome
B
improved skills
C
cognitive knowledge
D
a more versatile skills inventory
E
more intelligent employees
During a recent day-long training session, Ashley and a group of co-workers were asked to solve several puzzles that required the group to work closely together. As they finished each puzzle, the group’s sense of camaraderie increased. The members started the session as acquaintances and ended as friends. From this information, you would know this training session was designed to produce

A
an affective outcome
B
a skill-based outcome
C
cognitive knowledge
D
a more versatile skills inventory
E
more intelligent employees
Which of the following is a type of on-the-job training?

A
assessment centers
B
role playing
C
interactive video training
D
internships
E
programmed instruction
Even though the instructions for mixing paint colors were quite clear, the supervisor who was training the new hardware store clerk had her watch an actual demonstration of the mixing of a can of Desert Rose and a can of Newport Blue paint. The trainer used _____ to set the stage for learning.

A
shaping
B
enactive mastery
C
knowledge management
D
behavior modeling
E
task segmentation
Possible recipients of global leadership training and development include

A
expatriates
B
inpatriates
C
global managers
D
headquarters staff
E
all of the above
Which of the following statements about why unionization and collective bargaining are important is true?

A
Employers typically do not change their methods of operation when union organizers appear.
B
The core of union-management relations is the grievance procedure.
C
Unionization typically gives employers more flexibility in hiring new workers.
D
Unions obtain rights for their members that employees without unions do not legally have.
E
All of the above statements about why unionization and collective bargaining are important are true
What are the responsibilities of line managers in unionization and collective bargaining?

A
to understand why employees are likely to join a union
B
to manage employees with respect and equality
C
to support the efforts of HR professionals in developing and implementing policies to support good working conditions
D
to know what can and can’t be said to employees regarding unionization during an organizing campaign
E
to do all of the above
National unions

A
are umbrella organizations like the AFL-CIO
B
are all affiliated with the AFL-CIO
C
develop the general policies and procedures by which local unions operate
D
serve as the primary arbitrator in employee-employer disputes
E
routinely assist local unions in grievance-handling
Local unions elect a(n) _____, an employee elected by his or her work unit to act as the union representative at the workplace and to respond to company actions against employees that may violate the labor agreement.

A
employee spokesperson
B
union liaison
C
union steward
D
business representative
E
union delegate
One major function of the National Labor Relations Board is to

A
conduct the process in which a union is chosen to represent employees
B
supervise the internal activities and finances of unions
C
settle employee-employer disputes
D
encourage the certification of unions
E
reduce the number of economic strikes
What is the first step in the union certification process?

A
gain employer approval of unionization
B
union-employee contact
C
get sufficient number of employees to sign authorization cards
D
set up a meeting between employees and an NLRB representative
E
inform all stakeholders of union interest
Which of the following statements during the election campaign would probably be viewed negatively by the NLRB?

A
Management says that unions are costly to the employees because of union dues.
B
Management says that if a union is formed, strikes may occur.
C
The union promises that a grievance procedure will ensure fair treatment of employees.
D
The union promises higher wages.
E
Management says that layoffs will occur if a union is elected.
Decertification elections

A
are conducted by employers
B
can remove a union from representation
C
are conduced by the local union
D
are conducted by the national union
E
can pre-empt the card-signing campaign
Which of the following is an example of a condition that strongly influences an employee’s decision to join a union?

A
organizational mission statement
B
union instrumentality
C
employee personality
D
management’s open door policy
E
a lack of formalization
Collective bargaining is a complex process in which union members and management negotiators maneuver to win the most advantageous contract. How the issues are settled depends on

A
the quality of the union-management relationship
B
whether the organization is centralized
C
the degree of formalization within the organization
D
the organizational mission
E
all of the above
Which of the following types of bargaining used in contract negotiation results in a win-lose situation?

A
intraorganizational
B
distributive
C
integrative
D
continuous
E
concessionary
Which of the following statements about the composition of negotiating committees is true?

A
The employer and the union together select the management representative.
B
Lawyers are not selected as members of negotiating committees.
C
National union representatives are not included in any negotiating committee.
D
The union does not have to have management approval of its representative on the negotiating committee.
E
No one who is not a member of the union or an employee of the organization can be a member of the negotiating committee.
Before negotiations with the union, management needs to

A
survey employees to find out what union demands are before they are put on the table
B
prepare statistical displays and supportive data that the company will need during negotiations
C
hire a labor relations expert to make sure nothing illegal is agreed to
D
announce across-the-board pay increases
E
confirm its bargaining position with the National Labor Relations Board
Which of the following is an example of a mandatory issue to be discussed during a collective bargaining session?

A
number of new hires
B
pricing strategy for new products
C
wage rates
D
product design
E
new product development process
The most direct and dramatic response to a union-management negotiation deadlock that the union can make is a

A
primary boycott
B
work slowdown
C
lockout
D
strike
E
secondary boycott
A mediator

A
is a neutral third party that helps the union and management negotiators reach a voluntary agreement
B
must have the trust and respect of both parties if he or she is to have any success
C
must have sufficient expertise to convince the union and employer he or she will be fair and equitable
D
has no power to impose a solution, he or she can only facilitate
E
is accurately described by all of the above
The most common type of grievance filed by unions is ____________.

A
discipline and discharge
B
allocation of overtime
C
allocation of shift work
D
safety and health
E
improper promotions
Which of the following is a good measure of how well the union-management negotiation process works?

A
the need for government intervention
B
the duration of contract negotiations
C
the use of mediation and arbitration
D
the outcome of member ratification votes
E
all of the above

 

 

 
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Applied Business And Statistics

ChartDataSheet_

This worksheet contains values required for MegaStat charts.
Boxplot 1/28/2010 16:03.39
2 741
2 806
3 806
3 827
1 827
3 827
3 851.5
2 851.5
2 908
2 851.5
1 851.5
1 806
2 806
1 669.5
3 669.5
1 737.75
3 737.75
1 919.75
3 919.75
1 988
3 988
Boxplot 1/28/2010 16:06.08
2 741
2 806
3 806
3 827
1 827
3 827
3 851.5
2 851.5
2 908
2 851.5
1 851.5
1 806
2 806
1 669.5
3 669.5
1 737.75
3 737.75
1 919.75
3 919.75
1 988
3 988
Dotplot 1/28/2010 16:06.08
741 1
751 1
757 1
757 2
760 1
774 1
775 1
780 1
784 1
785 1
790 1
792 1
798 1
799 1
799 2
800 1
802 1
803 1
804 1
806 1
806 2
809 1
812 1
815 1
815 2
815 3
816 1
816 2
817 1
817 2
817 3
818 1
819 1
819 2
821 1
822 1
823 1
826 1
827 1
827 2
827 3
828 1
830 1
831 1
832 1
835 1
836 1
837 1
838 1
839 1
842 1
842 2
842 3
844 1
845 1
846 1
847 1
848 1
849 1
851 1
853 1
856 1
857 1
857 2
858 1
859 1
859 2
864 1
865 1
866 1
866 2
869 1
870 1
873 1
874 1
882 1
883 1
885 1
895 1
908 1
Boxplot 1/28/2010 16:08.20
2 741
2 806
3 806
3 827
1 827
3 827
3 851.5
2 851.5
2 895
2 851.5
1 851.5
1 806
2 806
1 669.5
3 669.5
1 737.75
3 737.75
1 919.75
3 919.75
1 988
3 988
1.8 980
1.8 1008
Dotplot 1/28/2010 16:08.20
741 1
751 1
757 1
757 2
760 1
774 1
775 1
780 1
784 1
785 1
790 1
792 1
798 1
799 1
799 2
800 1
802 1
803 1
804 1
806 1
806 2
809 1
812 1
815 1
815 2
815 3
816 1
816 2
817 1
817 2
817 3
818 1
819 1
819 2
821 1
822 1
823 1
826 1
827 1
827 2
827 3
828 1
830 1
831 1
832 1
835 1
836 1
837 1
838 1
839 1
842 1
842 2
842 3
844 1
845 1
846 1
847 1
848 1
849 1
851 1
853 1
856 1
857 1
857 2
858 1
859 1
859 2
864 1
865 1
866 1
866 2
869 1
870 1
874 1
882 1
883 1
885 1
895 1
980 1
1008 1

Bus

Must have access to the book: GCU Class: Statistical Techniques in Business and Economics (17th Edition)
Data Set 3 –Lincolnville School District Bus Data
ID Manufacturer Engine Type (0=diesel) Capacity Maintenance Cost Age Odometer Miles Miles
10 Keiser 1 14 4646 5 54375 11973
396 Thompson 0 14 1072 2 21858 11969
122 Bluebird 1 55 9394 10 116580 11967
751 Keiser 0 14 1078 2 22444 11948
279 Bluebird 0 55 1008 2 22672 11925
500 Bluebird 1 55 5329 5 50765 11922 Variables
520 Bluebird 0 55 4794 10 119130 11896
759 Keiser 0 55 3952 8 87872 11889 ID = Bus identification number
714 Bluebird 0 42 3742 7 73703 11837
875 Bluebird 0 55 4376 9 97947 11814 Manufacturer = Source of the bus (Bluebird, Keiser, or Thompson)
600 Bluebird 0 55 4832 10 119860 11800
953 Bluebird 0 55 5160 10 117700 11798 Engine type = If the engine is diesel then engine type = 0; if the engine is gasoline, then engine type = 1)
101 Bluebird 0 55 1955 4 41096 11789
358 Bluebird 0 55 2775 6 70086 11782 Capacity = number of seats on the bus
29 Bluebird 1 55 5352 6 69438 11781
365 Keiser 0 55 3065 6 63384 11778 Maintenance cost = dollars spent to maintain a bus last year
162 Keiser 1 55 3143 3 31266 11757
686 Bluebird 0 55 1569 3 34674 11707 Age = number of years since the bus left the manufacturer
370 Keiser 1 55 7766 8 86528 11704
887 Bluebird 0 55 3743 8 93672 11698 Odometer Miles = total number of miles traveled by a bus
464 Bluebird 1 55 2540 3 34530 11698
948 Keiser 0 42 4342 9 97956 11691 Miles = number of miles traveled since last maintenance
678 Keiser 0 55 3361 7 75229 11668
481 Keiser 1 6 3097 3 34362 11662
43 Bluebird 1 55 8263 9 102969 11615
704 Bluebird 0 55 4218 8 83424 11610
814 Bluebird 0 55 2028 4 40824 11576
39 Bluebird 1 55 5821 6 69444 11533
699 Bluebird 1 55 9069 9 98307 11518
75 Bluebird 0 55 3011 6 71970 11462
693 Keiser 1 55 9193 9 101889 11461
989 Keiser 0 55 4795 9 106605 11418
982 Bluebird 0 55 505 1 10276 11359
321 Bluebird 0 42 2732 6 70122 11358
724 Keiser 0 42 3754 8 91968 11344
732 Keiser 0 42 4640 9 101196 11342
880 Keiser 1 55 8410 9 97065 11336
193 Thompson 0 14 5922 11 128711 11248
884 Bluebird 0 55 4364 9 92457 11231
57 Bluebird 0 55 3190 7 79240 11222
731 Bluebird 0 42 3213 6 68526 11168
61 Keiser 0 55 4139 9 103536 11148
135 Bluebird 0 55 3560 7 76426 11127
833 Thompson 0 14 3920 8 90968 11112
671 Thompson 1 14 6733 8 89792 11100
692 Bluebird 0 55 3770 8 93248 11048
200 Bluebird 0 55 5168 10 103700 11018
754 Keiser 0 14 7380 14 146860 11003
540 Bluebird 1 55 3656 4 45284 10945
660 Bluebird 1 55 6213 6 64434 10911
353 Keiser 1 55 4279 4 45744 10902
482 Bluebird 1 55 10575 10 116534 10802
398 Thompson 0 6 4752 9 95922 10802
984 Bluebird 0 55 3809 8 87664 10760
977 Bluebird 0 55 3769 7 79422 10759
705 Keiser 0 42 2152 4 47596 10755
767 Keiser 0 55 2985 6 71538 10726
326 Bluebird 0 55 4563 9 107343 10724
120 Keiser 0 42 4723 10 110320 10674
554 Bluebird 0 42 1826 4 44604 10662
695 Bluebird 0 55 1061 2 23152 10633
9 Keiser 1 55 3527 4 46848 10591
861 Bluebird 1 55 9669 10 106040 10551
603 Keiser 0 14 2116 4 44384 10518
156 Thompson 0 14 6212 12 140460 10473
427 Keiser 1 55 6927 7 73423 10355
883 Bluebird 1 55 1881 2 20742 10344
168 Thompson 1 14 7004 7 83006 10315
954 Bluebird 0 42 5284 10 101000 10235
768 Bluebird 0 42 3173 7 71778 10227
490 Bluebird 1 55 10133 10 106240 10210
725 Bluebird 0 55 2356 5 57065 10209
45 Keiser 0 55 3124 6 60102 10167
38 Keiser 1 14 5976 6 61662 10140
314 Thompson 0 6 5408 11 128117 10128
507 Bluebird 0 55 3690 7 72849 10095
40 Bluebird 1 55 9573 10 118470 10081
918 Bluebird 0 55 2470 5 53620 10075
387 Bluebird 1 55 6863 8 89960 10055
418 Bluebird 0 55 4513 9 104715 10000
 
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